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To: ctdonath2
Nothing in Scripture indicates Mary is without sin. The notion is a rationalization by people uncomfortable with the notion that a sinless Christ could issue forth from a sinful mother.

If Christ’s sinlessness necessitates Mary be sinless, then her mother need be sinless - and all the way back, reducto ad absurdum.

Nothing in Scripture indicates the teachings of Christ solely appear in Scripture. The notion is a rationalization by people uncomfortable with the notion that an oral tradition could issue forth from Christ, through the Apostles, to the modern day.

If Scripture necessitates a Scriptural basis, then that basis must itself be in Scripture - and all the way back, reducto ad absurdum.

9 posted on 07/19/2009 3:00:02 PM PDT by thefrankbaum (Ad maiorem Dei gloriam)
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To: thefrankbaum

The point is that traditions should not contradict Scripture. If one must choose between trusting scripture, and trusting the Pope, then one either trusts Scripture (Protestant) or the Pope (Catholic).

When Scripture says (and, BTW, these are quotes from the OT),

“There is no one righteous, not even one;
there is no one who understands, no one who seeks God.
All have turned away, they have together become worthless; there is no one who does good, not even one.”

then one can believe it, or believe the Pope’s footnote “No one EXCEPT Mary”.

If you place tradition above Scripture, that is your choice. But one shouldn’t pretend it doesn’t exist as a choice.


28 posted on 07/19/2009 3:49:17 PM PDT by Mr Rogers (I loathe the ground he slithers on!)
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To: thefrankbaum
Nothing in Scripture indicates the teachings of Christ solely appear in Scripture. The notion is a rationalization by people uncomfortable with the notion that an oral tradition could issue forth from Christ, through the Apostles, to the modern day

You are mistaken...And God layed it out so a 12 year old could understand it...

2Ti 3:16 All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:
2Ti 3:17 That the man of God may be perfect, throughly furnished unto all good works.

ALL scripture is given by the inspiration of God...And we are to use the scripture as the standard by which we judge Christian matters...

When it comes to another religion, or someone deviating from the Gospel of the Grace of God, tradition, private revelation from God, apparitions, etc., we are to chew the person out, correct the person with scripture and then instruct the person in the ways of righteousness...

And by this correction from the scripture, a man will gain perfection while being completely, thouroughly furnished unto all good works...

The scripture is what it takes, and all it takes...

118 posted on 07/20/2009 6:38:18 AM PDT by Iscool (I don't understand all that I know...)
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To: thefrankbaum
Nothing in Scripture indicates the teachings of Christ solely appear in Scripture.

The Bereans search the scriptures daily to see if the oral traditions/teachings of the apostles were true. Therefore you are incorrect about what the scriptures say of themselves.

144 posted on 07/20/2009 11:11:35 AM PDT by DungeonMaster (I can reach across the aisle without even using my sights.)
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