Yes, although that runs counter to the Council of Trent's findings that Adam's sin tainted all of his descendants, which would, of course, include Mary. And of course, include all of us, too!
Thus we have a paradox: Mary is tainted by sin - per the Council of Trent and the infallible nature of the Church's teachings arising thereof - but we also have Mary being claimed to be sinless by Papal ex cathedra declaration some 300 years thereafter.
My common sense tells me that God,the father, would not choose Mary unless she was deemed sinless.
So it is not based on scripture, but only on what you believe to be a logical reason. Fair enough, at least we are in agreement there is no scriptural basis for Mary being sinless.
Remember, The Holy Spirit?
Yes, and he resides in all Christians, even though we are sinful. Somehow we do not need to be sinless to receive the grace of God and be filled with the Holy Spirit.
**Yes, and he resides in all Christians, even though we are sinful. Somehow we do not need to be sinless to receive the grace of God and be filled with the Holy Spirit.**
Yes, but Mary was sinless so that she could house God the Son in her womb!
How many times have I said that now?