Is the Bible God's Word? (Do you believe the Bible is the only word of God?)

http://www.jamaat.net/bible/Bible1-3.html ^ | Ahmed Deedat

[Stourme]

THE CATHOLIC BIBLE

Holding the "Douay" Roman Catholic Version of the Bible aloft in my hand, I ask, "Do YOU accept THIS Bible as the Word of God?" For reasons best known to themselves, the Catholic Truth Society have published their Version of the Bible in a very short, stumpy form. This Version is a very odd proportion of the numerous Versions in the market today. The Christian questioner is taken aback. "What Bible is that?" he asks. "Why, I thought you said that there was only ONE Bible!" I remind him. "Y-e-s," he murmurs hesitantly, "but what Version is that?" "Why, would that make any difference?" I enquire. Of course it does, and the professional preacher knows that it does. He is only bluffing with his "ONE Bible" claim.

The Roman Catholic Bible was published at Rheims in 1582, from Jerome's Latin Vulgate and reproduced at Douay in 1609. As such the RCV (Roman Catholic Version) is the oldest Version that one can still buy today. Despite its antiquity, the whole of the Protestant world, including the "cults"* condemn the RCV because it contains seven extra "books" which they contemptuously refer to as the "apocrypha" i.e. of DOUBTFUL AUTHORITY. Notwithstanding the dire warning contained in the Apocalypse, which is the last book in the RCV (renamed as "Revelation" by the Protestants), it is "revealed":

". . . If any man shall add to these things (or delete) God shall add unto him the plagues written in this Book." (Revelation 22:18-19)

But who cares! They do not really believe! The Protestants have bravely expunged seven whole books from their Book of God! The outcasts are:

The Book of Judith
The Book of Tobias
The Book of Baruch
The Buck of Esther, etc.
* This disparaging title is given by the orthodox to Jehovah's Witnesses, the Seventh Day Adventists and a thousand other sects and denominations with whom they do not see eye to eye.

[bdeaner]

Of course not. The Church invented it!

No, Christ instituted the Eucharist. Read what I wrote, including Hahn's exegesis of the Book of Revelation. This interpretation is validated by The Didache and other writings of the Early Church Fathers, but it is all there in Scripture, if you do not distort the text and do not selectively quote from it.

Christ WAS referring to the PASSOVER meal, because the PASSOVER meal was the ritual of the OLD COVENANT, and He used this ritual to institute the NEW COVENANT (Mark 14:24). This is clear and obvious in the Bible, when the NT is read in light of the OT, and vice versa.

Again, the analysis of Scott Hahn, a former Protestant who converted to Catholicism because he saw the truth of Catholic via his sincere study of Scripture, demonstrates this clearly.

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An In-Depth Exegesis

Yes, the Last Supper was the occasion was the Jewish feast of Passover (Mark 14:12-16). This memorial celebrated God’s deliverance of Israel from Egypt. During that fateful night, every firstborn son in Egypt perished except those in Israelite families where a lamb without blemish or broken bones (Ex. 12:5, 46) was slain and eaten as a substitutionary sacrifice. Then Moses led Israel out of Egypt to Mount Sinai, where the Law was given and the covenant was sealed between God and his people through sacrifice and communion.

Recent study of biblical covenants by scholars such as D. J. McCarthy shows how such a covenant formed a sacred flesh-and- blood bond between Yahweh and Israel, making them one family. This family bond was expressed in relational terms of father and son (Ex. 4:22; Deut. 1:31; 8:5; 14:1) as well as husband and wife (Jer. 31:32; Ezek. 16:8; Hos. 2:18-20). Liturgical feasts and rituals were to signify and strengthen the family communion that existed by covenant between Yahweh and Israel.

THIS WAS an important part of the Jewish understanding of Passover during the time of Jesus. It is significant that Jesus in the Gospels uses the word "covenant" on only one occasion, when he institutes the Eucharist during the Passover celebration in the upper room: "And he took a cup, and when he had given thanks [eucharistesas] he gave it to them, and they all drank of it. And he said to them, 'This is my blood of the new covenant, which is poured out for many'" (Mark 14:23-24). In his own mind, as both the Firstborn Son and Lamb of God, there was a connection between Pass-over and the self-sacrifice by which the new covenant was to be established.

The second stage of my rethinking came from studying the Jewish Passover liturgy. The structure of the Passover seder, known as the Haggadah, appears to have been formalized long before the time of Jesus. In fact, the Gospel accounts seem to assume its structure in narrating details of the Last Supper.

The Passover meal was divided into four parts. First, the preliminary course consisted of a festival blessing (kiddush) spoken over the first cup of wine, followed by the serving of a dish of herbs. The second course included a recital of the Passover narrative and the "Little Hallel" (Psalm 113), followed by the drinking of the second cup of wine. The third course was the main meal, consisting of lamb and unleavened bread, after which was drunk the third cup of wine, known as the "cup of blessing." The Passover climaxed with the singing of the "Great Hallel" (Psalms 114-118) and the drinking of the fourth cup of wine.

New Testament scholars see this pattern reflected in the Gospel narratives of the Last Supper. In particular, the cup blessed and distributed by Jesus is identified as the third cup in the Passover Haggadah. This is apparent from the singing of the "Great Hallel" which immediately follows: "And when they had sung a hymn. . . ." (Mark 14:26). Indeed, Paul identifies this "cup of blessing" with the Eucharistic cup (1 Cor. 10:16).

At this point a significant problem arises. Instead of proceeding immediately to the climax of the Passover, the drinking of the fourth cup, we read: "And when they had sung a hymn, they went out to the Mount of Olives" (Mark 14:26). While it may be difficult for Gentile Christians unfamiliar with the Haggadah to perceive the serious disorder this sequence represents, it is not lost to Jewish readers and students of the seder. For them, Jesus skipping the fourth cup could be compared to a priest omitting the words of consecration at Mass. The fundamental purpose or goal of the liturgy seemingly was missed.

Not only is the omission conspicuous, it appears to be underscored by the words of Jesus in the preceding verse: "Truly, I say to you, I shall not drink again of the fruit of the vine until that day when I drink it new in the Kingdom of God" (Mark 14:25). It is almost as though Jesus meant not to drink what he was expected to drink. On the other hand, a few scholars speculate that psychological factors account for Jesus’ forgetfulness. They point out how, subsequently, "he began to be greatly distressed and troubled. And he said to them, 'My soul is very sorrowful, even unto death'" (Mark 14:32). Perhaps he was too upset to be bothered with liturgical precision in following the rubrics.

WHILE THIS analysis may seem plausible, further reflection renders it improbable. For one thing, if he was so distracted and confused, it seems doubtful Jesus would forget and interrupt the Passover liturgy after expressly declaring his intention not to drink the fourth cup, especially since he went ahead and sang the "Great Hallel." Why would he declare himself so plainly before acting in so disorderly a fashion? His other actions that night indicate a man admittedly distressed but in full possession of himself. Why then did he choose not to drink?

The third stage of my discovery process was reached when the answer to that question seemed to become more evident by my focusing on Jesus’ prayer in the Garden of Gethsemane. Notice what he prayed: "And going a little farther, he fell on his face and prayed, 'My Father, if it be possible, let this cup pass from me; nevertheless, not as I will, but thou wilt'" (Matt. 26:39). Three times altogether Jesus prayed for his Father to take away "this cup." An obvious question arises: What cup was Jesus talking about?[Some scholars explain Jesus’ language by identifying it with "the cup of God’s wrath" in the Old Testament prophets (Is. 51:17; Jer. 25:15). Surely there is a connection here, but the connection seems less direct than does the primary link suggested by the Passover setting. Note how Jesus’ resolution not to drink "the fruit of the vine" seems to reappear in the scene at Golgotha right before he is crucified: "And they offered him wine mingled with myrrh; but he did not take it" (Mark 15:23). The narrative does not explain his refusal, but it probably points back to Jesus’ pledge not to drink until his Kingdom is manifested in glory. Incidentally, the synoptic Gospels often recount sayings of Jesus combining imagery of banquet feasts with his Kingdom glory (Matt. 22:1ff; Luke 22:15ff).]

The fourth stage of the process was reached when I found in John’s Gospel a perspective on Jesus’ Kingdom glory decidedly different from that found in Matthew, Mark, and Luke. John depends on irony in depicting the Kingdom glory of Jesus in connection with the suffering of the cross: "And Jesus answered them, The hour has come for the Son of man to be glorified. . . . Now is the judgment of this world, now shall the ruler of this world be cast out; and I, when I am lifted up from the earth, will draw all men to myself.' He said this to show by what death he was to die" (John 12:23, 31-33).

With profound spiritual insight, John links Jesus’ "hour of glory" with the supreme manifestation of his love upon the cross (John 3:14, 7:37-39, 8:28, 13:31). Following this to the end of the fourth Gospel, I began to notice several places where John deliberately weaves together various strands of Kingdom and Passover imagery in depicting Jesus’ trial and passion. The result was to draw a little nearer to what Jesus meant when he said, "It is finished" (John 19:30).

First, Jesus’ claim to kingship in John comes precisely at the moment when he appears weakest and most vulnerable--when he is standing accused before Pilate (18:33-37). Pilate’s cynical response is to dress him in a purple robe with a crown of thorns and to present him to his own unbelieving people: "Now it was the day of preparation of the Passover; it was about the sixth hour. He said to the Jews, 'Behold your King!' They cried out, 'Away with him, away with him, crucify him!'" (19:14). John realized that the sixth hour was when the priests were prescribed to begin slaughtering lambs for the Passover.

Second, only John mentions that Jesus was stripped of a seamless linen tunic (19:23-24). The same word for "garment" (chiton) is used in the Old Testament for the official tunic worn by the High Priest in sacrifice (Ex. 28:4; Lev.16:4). This is meant to remind faithful readers that Jesus, their glorious King and Passover lamb, is also the High Priest of the New Covenant (19:23-24).

Third, the identification of Jesus with the Passover lamb is reinforced by John’s noting Jesus’ bones remained unbroken, as prescribed by the law for the Passover lamb (Ex. 12:46): "that the Scripture might be fulfilled, 'Not a bone of him shall be broken'" (19:33, 36). This brings to fulfillment the words used in John’s introduction of Jesus at the start of his Gospel: "Behold the lamb of God who takes away the sin of the world" (1:29).

GRADUALLY these Passover and Kingdom themes from John’s Gospel began to converge in my mind as I reapproached the question of Jesus’ meaning in saying, "It is finished" (John 19:30). For one thing, I noticed that my King, Priest, and paschal victim, in his "hour of glory" while suffering on the cross, made a profound gesture: "After this Jesus, knowing that all was now finished, said (to fulfill the Scripture), 'I thirst.'"

Jesus was thirsty long before this closing moment of his life. His words, therefore, must reflect more than a desire for a last drink of fluid. He seems to have been in full possession of himself as he realized that "all was now finished." Whatever it is that "was now finished" seems to be directly connected to his utterance, which he spoke "to fulfill the Scripture." More things fall into place upon reading what followed his expression of thirst: "A bowl of sour wine stood there; so they put a sponge full of the vinegar on hyssop and held it to his mouth" (19:29). Only John noticed that hyssop was used, >b>the branch prescribed in the Passover law for sprinkling the blood of the lamb (Ex.12:22).

This verse reveals something significant. Jesus had left unfinished the Passover liturgy in the upper room by not drinking the fourth cup. He stated his intention not to drink wine again until he came into the glory of his Kingdom. As we have seen, he refused some on one occasion, right before being nailed to the cross (Mark 15:23). Then, at the very end, Jesus was offered "sour wine" (John 19:30; Matt.27:48; Mark 15:36; Luke 23:36). But only John tells us how he responded: "When Jesus had received the sour wine, he said, 'It is finished'; and he bowed his head and gave up his spirit" (19:30).

AT LAST I had an answer to my question. It was the Passover that was now finished. More precisely, it was Jesus’ transformation of the Passover sacrifice of the Old Covenant into the Eucharistic sacrifice of the New Covenant. I learned Scripture teaches that the Passover sacrifice of the New Covenant began in the upper room with the institution of the Eucharist, not merely with Jesus being crucified on Calvary, as I was taught and had been teaching. In Jesus’ mind, his Eucharistic sacrifice as the Passover lamb of the New Covenant was not finished until Calvary. In sum, Calvary begins with the Eucharist and the Eucharist ends with Calvary. It is all of one piece.

It did not occur to me at the time that this is the teaching of the Catholic Church on Christ’s sacrifice in the Eucharist. I was still anti-Catholic in my theological outlook as an Evangelical Protestant, though I must confess I had never thoroughly read a single Catholic work explaining or defending the Church’s teaching. Besides, I had never attended Mass. On the other hand, some of my parishioners and students were ex-Catholics, and a few of them began warning me about certain "Romish" tendencies they detected in me. I assured them I was only following Scripture.

Further study of the matter led me to additional revisions. For one thing, I sought confirmation and clarification elsewhere in Scripture for my conclusion regarding the inseparable connection between Jesus’ Passover sacrifice in the Eucharist and on Calvary. In particular, further study of John’s Gospel presented considerable support for this conclusion, especially in Jesus’ discourse on the Bread of Life in chapter six.

The occasion for the discourse is explicitly stated: "Now the Passover, the feast of the Jews, was at hand" (6:4). John shows how Jesus miraculously provided bread for five thousand after "he had given thanks [eucharistesas]," thereby evoking Eucharistic imagery. Jesus then identified himself as the "true bread from heaven" (6:32ff.) and the "bread of life" (6:35), drawing a parallel with Moses, through whom God supernaturally fed manna to the Israelites while forming a covenant with them right after the first Passover (Ex. 16:4ff.). In this way John prepares his readers to understand how Jesus formed a new covenant family by means of his own Eucharistic sacrifice as High Priest and paschal victim.

Even clearer testimony is provided when Jesus declares, "Truly, truly, I say to you, unless you eat the flesh of the Son of man and drink his blood, you have no life in you; he who eats my flesh and drinks my blood has eternal life, and I will raise him up at the last day. For my flesh is food indeed, and my blood is drink indeed. He who eats my flesh and drinks my blood abides in me, and I in him" (6:53-56).

I CLEARLY remember when I first studied this passage in the midst of my discovery process. It felt as if I had never really comprehended the words before, though I had read the fourth Gospel all the way through many times. It became evident that Jesus deliberately used the strongest language to convey the connection between his sacrifice as the Passover Lamb and the Eucharist, even in the face of unbelief and scandal (6:60-69).

The reason for this connection lies in the Old Testament Passover itself. It was not enough to kill the lamb. Death was only one aspect of the sacrifice. The ultimate goal was restoring communion between God and his people, which was vividly accomplished by the Passover meal. In other words, you had to eat the lamb. Jesus’ sacrificial death, begun in the upper room and finished at Calvary, was not the full end of his Passover sacrifice either. The ultimate goal is restoring communion, which is accomplished by the Eucharist. In sum, we too have to eat the Lamb.

PAUL shares a similar perspective when he states, "Christ our paschal lamb has been sacrificed." (1 Cor. 5:7). Notice he does not conclude, "There is nothing more to be done." Instead, he says in the very next verse, "Let us, therefore, celebrate the festival, not with the old leaven, the leaven of malice and evil, but with the unleavened bread of sincerity and truth" (1 Cor. 5:8). In other words, something more remains for us to do. We are to feast upon Jesus, the bread of life and our Passover Lamb.

Paul reinforces the reality of this communion elsewhere: "The cup of blessing which we bless, is it not a participation [koinonia] in the blood of Christ? The bread which we break, is it not a participation [koinonia] in the body of Christ?" (1 Cor. 10:16). Such language reflects a solid belief in the real presence of Christ in the Eucharist. No wonder Paul warns, "For any one who eats and drinks without discerning the body eats and drinks judgment upon himself" (1 Cor. 11:29). I saw a similar outlook in the Epistle to the Hebrews. This came as a surprise, since I had always taught, as I had been trained, that Hebrews, more than any other New Testament book, contradicted the Catholic doctrine of the Eucharist as a sacrifice. The main theme of Hebrews is the priesthood of Jesus, particularly as it relates to his "once for all" sacrifice (Heb. 7:27; 9:12, 26; 10:10). This is succinctly stated: "Now the point in what we are saying is this: We have such a high priest, one who is seated at the right hand of the throne of the Majesty in heaven, a minister in the sanctuary and the true tabernacle which is set up not by man but by the Lord" (Heb. 8:1-2).

Unlike priests in the Old Testament, Jesus does not make daily offerings of distinct sacrifices (Heb. 7:27). On the other hand, "every high priest is appointed to offer gifts and sacrifices; hence it is necessary for this priest also to have something to offer" (Heb. 8:3). Does this mean that Jesus’ "once for all" sacrifice is exclusively past? Or does it not assert that Jesus’ sacrifice, precisely because of its "once for all" character, has become the one perfect and perpetual offering he continually presents in heaven on our behalf? The conclusion is that Jesus no longer bleeds, suffers, or dies (Heb. 9:25-26). He is enthroned in his resurrected and glorified human body as our High Priest and King (Heb. 7:1-3).

It is precisely in this manner that the Father beholds a perfect and perpetual offering in the living body of the Son. If Jesus’ offering has ceased, there would be no basis for his ongoing priesthood, but Jesus’ priesthood is said to be permanent and to "continue forever" (Heb.7:24). Moreover, there would be no reason for an earthly altar if Jesus’ offering is ended, which is what I believed as an Evangelical Protestant--until I discovered that Scripture teaches the reverse: "We have an altar from which those who serve the tent have no right to eat" (Heb. 13:10). The "once for all" character of Jesus’ sacrifice points to the perfection and perpetuity of his offering. It can be re-presented upon our altars in the Eucharist so that "through him [we] continually offer up a sacrifice of praise to God" (Heb. 13:15).

FINAL confirmation came for me when I came upon an exciting feature of John’s vision of Christ in the Book of Revelation. Upon hearing the angel announce the appearing of Jesus as "the Lion of the tribe of Judah," John looks and beholds "a Lamb standing, as though it had been slain" (Rev. 5:5-6).

In other words, he who is our celebrant priest and reigning king in the liturgical worship of the heavenly assembly also appears continually as the Passover Lamb of the New Covenant. He appears as the Lamb because his sacrificial offering continues. It will continue until he restores communion with each of his children through the Eucharist. Indeed, it will continue that way for God’s family forever into eternity. After all, our everlasting blessedness is depicted in John’s vision of the New Jerusalem as "the marriage supper of the Lamb" (Rev. 19:9, 21:2, 9-10, 22:17).

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THE CATHOLIC DOCTRINE ON THE EUCHARIST IS DEEPLY AND THOROUGHLY BIBLICAL AND, WITH A PROPER TEACHER, CAN BE SHOWN TO BE CLEAR AND OBVIOUS IN THE SCRIPTURES.

Scott Hahn discovered this for himself, in his sincere attempt to understand Scripture, and had to admit the truth, even though he was an outspoken anti-Catholic Protestant minister. And he gave up his entire ministry to join the Catholic Church as a result of that discovery. If that is not convincing testimony, I don't know what is, because Hahn knows the Bible better than any Protestant or Catholic I've ever seen.

[Tennessee Nana]

BTTT