Chapter & Verse please. This is the first I've heard this!
Does 2 Tim 3:16 not promote sola scriptura?
“Does 2 Tim 3:16 not promote sola scriptura”
Not by itself. Catholics will make use of the things Scripture is useful for, and rightly point out that the church itself also is such. But the key words are “All scripture is given by inspiration of God,” which is nowhere said of Israel or the church, though they were and she upholds it (1 Tim. 3:15).
It is that which is affirmed to be inspired that enabled the church to be born, as it consists only of souls who are added to it by faith in the Word.
While even if it were possible that some traditions about Christ that are not recorded (Jn. 21:25) were also inspired, it is too late for that, as to hold that tradition is equal to Scripture is essentially adding to a closed canon (which t took 1400+ years and the Reformation for Rome to provide herself with a faulty, but “infallible” conclusion).
Meanwhile, church tradition is virtually a bottomless pit, as there is no certain beginning nor end to it. And that which is shown to contradict Scripture relies upon a self proclaim infallible magisterium. And appealing to Scripture for proof is submitting to sola Scriptura. But according her apologists, laymen cannot know anything for certain from that method, but need to submit first to the doctrine of her infallible magisterium.
But even then they can offer no infallible list of infallible teaching, while much or most of the Bible remains without such by heart (and few western Catholics manifest care for such).
I see the Berean heart and method much better, even with it’s inherent abuses.