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To: Uncle Chip
Well then are you telling us that when the writers of the New Testament used the word "Hebrew" that they really meant "Syriac" which is well known to be "Aramaic" ------ not "Hebrew"????

The NIV doesn't always translate the word 'Hebrew' as 'Aramaic'.

It doesn't do so in Rev.9:11 and 16:16.

1,426 posted on 02/06/2008 6:55:48 AM PST by fortheDeclaration ("Our constitution was made only for a moral and religious people".-John Adams)
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To: fortheDeclaration; kosta50
The NIV doesn't always translate the word 'Hebrew' as 'Aramaic'. It doesn't do so in Rev.9:11 and 16:16.

Great point!!! Let's read one of them:

"And they had a king over them, which is the angel of the bottomless pit, whose name in the Hebrew tongue is Abaddon, but in the Greek tongue hath his name Apollyon." [Rev 9:11]

That word "abaddon" comes directly out of the Biblical Hebrew, and from the Biblical Hebrew word "abaddown" meaning "destruction" and is found in Biblical Hebrew passages such as Esther 9:5, Job 26:6, 31:12, Psalm 88:11, Proverbs 15:11, 27:20.

Therefore, when John is using the word "Hebraisti" [Hebrew], as the inscription on the cross, he must mean Hebrew from the same source -- as if there is any other.

1,447 posted on 02/06/2008 9:06:34 AM PST by Uncle Chip (TRUTH : Ignore it. Deride it. Allegorize it. Interpret it. But you can't ESCAPE it.)
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