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To: Uncle Chip
The KJ uses talitha cumi in Mk.5:41,which is, I believe, an Aramaic expression, the same word that the NIV uses

I didn't say they don't use Aramaic words, I said NIV substitutes the (proper) name Hebrew (actually "Hebraisti" not "Ioudisti") with a (proper) name Aramaic for the name of the languge in the NT. NAB does in four instances in the OT, and the KJV calls everything Hebrew and does not use the name Aramaic in the NT.

1,419 posted on 02/06/2008 5:37:02 AM PST by kosta50 (Eastern Orthodoxy is pure Christianity)
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To: kosta50; MarkBsnr
I didn't say they don't use Aramaic words, I said NIV substitutes the (proper) name Hebrew (actually "Hebraisti" not "Ioudisti") with a (proper) name Aramaic for the name of the languge in the NT. NAB does in four instances in the OT, and the KJV calls everything Hebrew and does not use the name Aramaic in the NT.

So then if we go back and check any of your earlier posts we won't find in any of them where you said or implied that the Greek word "Hebraisti" actually means "Chaldee" or "Aramaic" or something other than "Hebrew"????

1,420 posted on 02/06/2008 6:20:58 AM PST by Uncle Chip (TRUTH : Ignore it. Deride it. Allegorize it. Interpret it. But you can't ESCAPE it.)
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