As are the Greek scriptures wherein the word "Aramaic" is never found but the word "Hebrew/Hebraisti" is all over the place as the language that Jesus spoke, taught in, spoke to Paul in from heaven, that Paul spoke to the Jews of Jerusalem in, and that was thus inscribed on the cross.
In your own bubble world mind. I have shown you that Hebraïstí in biblical Greek refers to Chaldee which is Aramaic.
Greeks called the languge spoken by the Jews in the 1st century Hebraisti because it was spoken by Hebrews. That doesn't mean it was Hebrew. We know it wasn't hebrew but Chaldee or Aramaic. The word "Aramaic" did not exist in Greek.
The Greeks refer to the OT Hebrew (Yehoudiyth in Hebrew, as opposed to Aramiyth for Aramaic, Aram's language) as Ioudaïstí, which is not the same as Hebraïstí (which is Greek for Chaldee, or Aramaic).
Straight from the Bible in the original languages! But I realize that for some, the original languages don't count.
But English-language bibles "solve" this problem by offering just the kind of bible you need. The NIV substitutes "Aramaic" for every NT KJV reference to "Hebrew" (language). NAB has four references to Aramaic (only in the OT), and KJV has NO "Aramaic" in the OT or the NT!
It's a true buffet of choices which particualr bible will to accept as the "word of God," expertly dressed and choregraphed by men, and tailor-made to their particular preconceived preference.