Are just trying to be intentionally obtuse? Do you call the language of the Americans American? (you probably do, it wouldn't surprise me).
They didn't speak Hebrew in the 1st century. The name "Hebrew" referred to Biblical Hebrew (to differentiate it from Dead Sea Scroll Hebrew). In the Greek New Testament it is Hebraisti which was the koine Greek word for Chaldee (Aramaic). Which part of this don't you understand?
Just because our language is English doesn't mean we are English. Just because Alexandrian Jews spoke Greek and lived in Egypt doesn't mean they were Greek-speaking Egyptians, but Greek-speaking Jews.
The New testament Greek (look up any source) says Habrais means:
We speak English, not the English that was spoken a 200 or 400 years ago but we still call it English. Did Shakespeare write in English??? Do we write or speak in that kind of English today??? But it is still called English today -- right????
They didn't speak Hebrew in the 1st century. The name "Hebrew" referred to Biblical Hebrew (to differentiate it from Dead Sea Scroll Hebrew). In the Greek New Testament it is Hebraisti which was the koine Greek word for Chaldee (Aramaic).
Baloney -- Hebraisti means Hebrew not Aramaic or Chaldean. What part of that don't you understand?
The New testament Greek (look up any source) says Habrais means: Hebrew, the Hebrew language, not that however in which the OT was written but the Chaldee, which at the time of Jesus and the apostles had long superseded it in Palestine
LOLOL -- they may not have spoken in Mosaic Hebrew, or even Isaiah's Hebrew, or even Ezra's Hebrew in the first century Judea, but it was still Hebrew -- 1st century AD Jewish Hebrew -- but Hebrew nonetheless. Just like we may not speak or write Shakespeare's English, or 17th century English, or even early American English, but what we speak and write today is still called English. So go stick your obtuse comment up your deliberation --