[Uncle Chip]

Are just trying to be intentionally obtuse? Do you call the language of the Americans American? (you probably do, it wouldn't surprise me).

We speak English, not the English that was spoken a 200 or 400 years ago but we still call it English. Did Shakespeare write in English??? Do we write or speak in that kind of English today??? But it is still called English today -- right????

They didn't speak Hebrew in the 1st century. The name "Hebrew" referred to Biblical Hebrew (to differentiate it from Dead Sea Scroll Hebrew). In the Greek New Testament it is Hebraisti which was the koine Greek word for Chaldee (Aramaic).

Baloney -- Hebraisti means Hebrew not Aramaic or Chaldean. What part of that don't you understand?

The New testament Greek (look up any source) says Habrais means: Hebrew, the Hebrew language, not that however in which the OT was written but the Chaldee, which at the time of Jesus and the apostles had long superseded it in Palestine

LOLOL -- they may not have spoken in Mosaic Hebrew, or even Isaiah's Hebrew, or even Ezra's Hebrew in the first century Judea, but it was still Hebrew -- 1st century AD Jewish Hebrew -- but Hebrew nonetheless. Just like we may not speak or write Shakespeare's English, or 17th century English, or even early American English, but what we speak and write today is still called English. So go stick your obtuse comment up your deliberation --

[kosta50]

From New Testament Greek

Home > Lexicons > Greek > Hebraisti

The KJV New Testament Greek Lexicon

 Strong's Number:   1447

 Browse Lexicon 

Original Word	Word Origin
ÔEbrai>stiv	from (1446)
Transliterated Word	TDNT Entry
Hebraisti	3:356,372
Phonetic Spelling	Parts of Speech
heb-rah-is-tee'	Adverb

 Definition

1. in Hebrew, i.e. in Chaldee

 King James Word Usage - Total: 6

in the Hebrew tongue 3, in the Hebrew 2, in Hebrew 1

KJV Verse Count
John	4
Revelation	2
Total	6

You have not provided a single educated, academic, learned, intellectual or credible piece of evidence that the use of Hebraïsti in the NT is anything but Aramaic (Chaldee), not Hebrew.

Of course, you will notice that the KJV translates it incorrectly (imagine that!), and how one lie (oh the devil is so happy with KJV!) becomes the "truth."

You are more "Hebrew" in your zeal than the Jews, whose sources are actually rather objective. Your claims run contrary even to the Jewish Encyclopedia!

If you want to be the 'king" in your bubble world and pontificate what is true, that's your prerogative, but I am not interested in your foolishness.

You have serious issues. I am sorry for you.

You can find someone else to convince that the Greeks don't know their own language, or that  faulty, damned and corrupt English bible versions are the "word of God." You can go on living in your own little fantasy world (but I suggest you get some help