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To: Uncle Chip
Show us all the word for "Palestine" in that Greek New Testament of yours...Israel began to be called Palestine only after the Romans renamed it in the middle of the 2nd century AD -- not before.

You are amazing! In the 5th century BC, Greek historian Herodotus calls the area Palestiné.

And while you are at it, show us the word "Aramaic" in that Greek bible of yours???

The Jews spoke Aramaic and referred to Aramaic as "Hebrew tongue" when Jesus walked the earth. The ancient Hebrew was probably use donly in the temple, but in the synagogues the language was Aramaic. Jewish Encyclopedia reveals that the 1st century Jewish historian

The Temple Hebrew was the OT Hebrew which was not spoken. The Dead Sea Scrolls used a different Hebrew, known as the Mishanic Hebrew.

Jewish Encyclopedia, further, reveals that "The "List of the Fast-Days" (nullMegillat Ta'anit), edited before the destruction of the Temple, was written in Aramaic."

Jewish historian of the 1st century, Josephus Flavius wrote the Jewish War in Old Judean Aramaic. Parts of Old Testament Book of Daniel (Dan. 2:4, 7:28) are written in Aaramaic.

Prophet Nehemiah (13:24) states that the children "could not speak in the Jews' language, but according to the language of each people.".

Ezra verses 4:23, 5:5, 6:13-18 are actually written in Aramaic, not in Hebrew.

The process of Aramaization among Hebrews was a slow process. According to Jewish Encycopedia, around 300 BC (4th century before Chirst), Aramaic appears in Jewish literature.

Furthermore, Jewish Encyclopedia reflects on the religious language of the 1st century Palestinian Jews revealing that even the languge of the scripture was Aramaic and the scripture itself (the Targum) was in Aramaic:

"The tannaitic Halakah speaks of the Targum as an institution closely connected with the public Bible-reading, and one of long-established standing. But, just as the translation of the Scripture lesson for the benefit of the assembled people in the synagogue had to be in Aramaic, so all addresses and homilies hinging upon the Scripture had to be in the same language. Thus Jesus and his nearest disciples spoke Aramaic and taught in it (see Dalman, "Die Worte Jesu")."

You are reading literally and out of context of Palestinian reality and culture in the 1st century BC, and you are drawing erroneous conclusions. Read more history and the Bible will make a lot more sense.

1,145 posted on 02/03/2008 10:27:13 PM PST by kosta50 (Eastern Orthodoxy is pure Christianity)
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To: kosta50
You are amazing! In the 5th century BC, Greek historian Herodotus calls the area Palestiné.

So -- is that all??? No one else? Josephus?? Tacitus??? any other Greeks closer to the relevant time??? You are basing your claim on one 5th century BC Greek??? == Please.

The Jews spoke Aramaic and referred to Aramaic as "Hebrew tongue" when Jesus walked the earth.

So you are saying that there was no Greek word for "Aramaic" in Greek in those days and the closest word to it was the Greek word for "Hebrew"???? Is that what you are claiming???????

Jewish Encyclopedia reveals that the 1st century Jewish historian "Josephus [Flavius] considers Aramaic so thoroughly identical with Hebrew that he quotes Aramaic words as Hebrew ("Ant." iii. 10, § 6), and describes the language in which Titus' proposals to the Jerusalemites were made (which certainly were in Aramaic) as Hebrew ("B. J." vi. 2, § 1)."

So then if the languages were so nearly identical, it could reasonably be said that the Syrians were speaking Hebrew not Aramaic, rather than vice versa, right???? Adopted words had entered the Hebrew language from Aramaic, Greek, Latin, Chaldean, etc since the days when those scriptures were written, but adopted words just like adopted children take the name and heritage of their adopting parents -- not vice versa.

The Temple Hebrew was the OT Hebrew which was not spoken.

So when Jesus read the Hebrew scroll of Isaiah no body understood him???? or did they remark that he taught as one having great authority because his Hebrew aligned perfectly with the words that he had been giving to his people since the days of Moses???

What you forget, kosta, is that religious Jews, those Jews who regarded their Mosaic heritage, and valued the Hebrew scriptures, and hung around the Temple and synagogues where those Hebrew scriptures were taught, would have spoken and understood a Hebrew closer to the original Hebrew of the scriptures -- Temple Hebrew, as you call it.

Those Jews who kept those original Hebrew scriptures in their heart, and hung around the Temple and synagogues where they could be learned and understood and memorized were the Jews who responded to Jesus when he came and received their Messiah. Knowing the Hebrew scriptures, they recognized him as the author of those Hebrew scriptures that they had in their heart. He spoke their language and they understood his words and that language was the Hebrew of the Hebrew scriptures.

1,158 posted on 02/04/2008 4:41:35 AM PST by Uncle Chip (TRUTH : Ignore it. Deride it. Allegorize it. Interpret it. But you can't ESCAPE it.)
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