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To: Uncle Chip
You didn’t answer the question: Did the ages end in the first century? Yes or No

According to the testimony of Scripture (some of which I quoted to you), the answer is "Yes, the ages in view did end at the coming of Jesus Christ into the world to redeem His people from their sin."

Here’s another verse for your consideration:

"Now all these things happened to them as examples, and they were written for our admonition, upon whom the ends of the ages have come. " (1 Cor. 10:11)

"11 And every priest stands ministering daily and offering repeatedly the same sacrifices, which can never take away sins. 12 But this Man, after He had offered one sacrifice for sins forever, sat down at the right hand of God, 13 from that time waiting till His enemies are made His footstool." (Heb. 10)

When Christ sat down on His throne it marked then end of the old system (what the Jews referred to as "this age") and ushered in "the age to come" (marked by eternal life, Mark 10:30).

Now to my question, without twisting the plain meaning, does Heb. 9:26 testify that Christ appeared at the end of the ages to put away sin?

160 posted on 08/14/2007 7:41:09 AM PDT by topcat54 ("... knowing that the testing of your faith produces patience." (James 1:3))
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To: topcat54
According to the testimony of Scripture (some of which I quoted to you), the answer is "Yes, the ages in view did end at the coming of Jesus Christ into the world to redeem His people from their sin."

But the Scriptures do not bear this out.

Ephesians 2:7 says "that in the ages [aeons] to come...", and in Matthew 12:32 Jesus says: "Whosoever speaks against the Holy Spirit, it shall not be forgiven him in this age [aeon], neither in the age to come." So there was atleast one age to come and probably more.

does Heb. 9:26 testify that Christ appeared at the end of the ages to put away sin?

Sure but what is meant by the phrase: "the end of the ages"???? Clearly there had been earlier "ages" and there were "ages" to come.

The first half would be called "the beginning of the ages [aeons]" and the last half would be called "the end of the ages [aeons]" ---- much like we call the Sunday-Monday-Tuesday the "beginning of the week" and Thursday-Friday-Saturday the "end of the week".

The "age" in which Jesus appeared was the latter half of those ages, thus called "the end of the ages". So Jesus appeared not only at the end of a particular age [aeon] but also at the end [last half] of the ages [aeons] --- all of which were "framed by the word of God". [Heb 11:3]

161 posted on 08/14/2007 8:19:44 AM PDT by Uncle Chip (TRUTH : Ignore it. Deride it. Allegorize it. Interpret it. But you can't ESCAPE it.)
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