[hosepipe]

{.. Ha Ha! You mean to say that an ordinary person in the 6th century in Londinium or Paris or Nice or Hispania would know Koine GREEK rather than Latin?? ..]

No in the middle east.. Because of Alexander the great and those that followed his rule after he died.. latin was used on;lt by RC priests.. and some orthodox clergy.. as a second laguage.. But the PEOPLE... NO..

[Cronos]

Me: Ha Ha! You mean to say that an ordinary person in the 6th century in Londinium or Paris or Nice or Hispania would know Koine GREEK rather than Latin?? ..]

You: No in the middle east.. Because of Alexander the great and those that followed his rule after he died.. latin was used on;lt by RC priests.. and some orthodox clergy.. as a second laguage.. But the PEOPLE... NO..

Huh?? You just said that Latin was not common in Western Europe. I said it WAS the common language in the first millenium. You really think Greek was the common language in Western Europe???

And, no, Greek wasn't the common language in the "middle East", but in the "Near East" -- in the Eastern part of the mediterranean. In Syria, Judea and Arabia, Aramaic/Syriac was the common language

Orthodox clergy didn't use Latin, but Greek as Greek was the common language in the Eastern half (but there were local languages like Coptic, Aramaic, Slavic, etc. etc.) as Latin was the common language in the West.

really, read a little more history