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To: Diego1618
People from those tribes from the North, called the 'House of Israel' were in Jerusalem at the time of Pentacost and Peter called them 'Jews'.

Zech 8:13 And it shall come to pass, that as ye were a curse among the heathen, O house of Judah, and house of Israel; so will I save you, and ye shall be a blessing: fear not, but let your hands be strong.

Acts 2:36 Therefore let all the house of Israel know assuredly, that God hath made that same Jesus, whom ye have crucified, both Lord and Christ.

So, every tribe is represented under the title of 'Jew'.

And if you think that the term Israelite and Jew are used interchangably for any of the members of the 12 tribes, and all 12 tribes are present as Jews, then we are not in any disagreement.

When Christ says He is King of the Jews, He is King over all 12 tribes of the line of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, which still exist as Jews.

But to think this is some great historical biblical discovery is quite funny.

The members of the 10 tribes were either absorbed into the nations around them (being lost) or survived by remaining with Judea.

Everyone knows that.

And the reason I keep associating you with the British Israelites is because you keep using their same goofy arguments.

235 posted on 07/16/2007 4:51:10 PM PDT by fortheDeclaration (We must beat the Democrats or the country will be ruined! - Lincoln)
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To: fortheDeclaration; Ping-Pong
People from those tribes from the North, called the 'House of Israel' were in Jerusalem at the time of Pentecost and Peter called them 'Jews'.

[Acts 2:5] And there were dwelling at Jerusalem Jews, devout men, out of every nation under heaven. You're right....he called them Jews. He did not, nor did the Holy Spirit, say they were of The Northern Kingdom. As stated in postings earlier, not all of the Jews came back from the Babylonian exile. Mordacai, [Esther 2:5] was a good example. He is still living in Susa (modern Iran). This is anywhere from 486 B.C. to 424 B.C. depending on which Xerxes you think was King [Esther 1:1]. This was 50/100 years after the return from Babylon. Consequently there were Jews all over the civilized world at that time (first century A.D.).....and they still made pilgrimages to Jerusalem for the (Shavuot) festivals.

Acts 2:36 Therefore let all the house of Israel know assuredly, that God hath made that same Jesus, whom ye have crucified, both Lord and Christ.

Yup! In verse 22 he addresses them as Men of Israel....which they indeed were. But, remember in verse 5 he calls them Jews. Jews are of the House of Israel also......so what is your quandary here? Don't forget, Peter and the twelve had been commissioned to go to "The House of Israel" and to stay away from the Gentiles. This would indeed include the Jews and when Peter makes the statement in verse 36 it is a reminder of what Our Saviour had instructed them to do in [Matthew 10:5-6].

Many folks have falsely assumed that the Apostles were allowed to go to the Gentles also....but that was not the case. That was the reason for Paul's selection....to go to the Gentiles. Peter and the twelve were given strict instructions not to go there. So.....for Peter to include "The House of Israel" (verse 36) in his general call to salvation, is nothing to wonder about.

So, every tribe is represented under the title of 'Jew'.

Nope! It doesn't say that at all.

And if you think that the term Israelite and Jew are used interchangeably for any of the members of the 12 tribes, and all 12 tribes are present as Jews, then we are not in any disagreement.

I never said that. I said that the only the Jews (descendants of Judah and citizens of Judah....or Judea) can use the term interchangeably.

When Christ says He is King of the Jews, He is King over all 12 tribes of the line of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, which still exist as Jews.

Can you show me where He says that?....chapter and verse?

237 posted on 07/16/2007 5:39:37 PM PDT by Diego1618
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