[Acts 2:5] And there were dwelling at Jerusalem Jews, devout men, out of every nation under heaven. You're right....he called them Jews. He did not, nor did the Holy Spirit, say they were of The Northern Kingdom. As stated in postings earlier, not all of the Jews came back from the Babylonian exile. Mordacai, [Esther 2:5] was a good example. He is still living in Susa (modern Iran). This is anywhere from 486 B.C. to 424 B.C. depending on which Xerxes you think was King [Esther 1:1]. This was 50/100 years after the return from Babylon. Consequently there were Jews all over the civilized world at that time (first century A.D.).....and they still made pilgrimages to Jerusalem for the (Shavuot) festivals.
Acts 2:36 Therefore let all the house of Israel know assuredly, that God hath made that same Jesus, whom ye have crucified, both Lord and Christ.
Yup! In verse 22 he addresses them as Men of Israel....which they indeed were. But, remember in verse 5 he calls them Jews. Jews are of the House of Israel also......so what is your quandary here? Don't forget, Peter and the twelve had been commissioned to go to "The House of Israel" and to stay away from the Gentiles. This would indeed include the Jews and when Peter makes the statement in verse 36 it is a reminder of what Our Saviour had instructed them to do in [Matthew 10:5-6].
Many folks have falsely assumed that the Apostles were allowed to go to the Gentles also....but that was not the case. That was the reason for Paul's selection....to go to the Gentiles. Peter and the twelve were given strict instructions not to go there. So.....for Peter to include "The House of Israel" (verse 36) in his general call to salvation, is nothing to wonder about.
So, every tribe is represented under the title of 'Jew'.
Nope! It doesn't say that at all.
And if you think that the term Israelite and Jew are used interchangeably for any of the members of the 12 tribes, and all 12 tribes are present as Jews, then we are not in any disagreement.
I never said that. I said that the only the Jews (descendants of Judah and citizens of Judah....or Judea) can use the term interchangeably.
When Christ says He is King of the Jews, He is King over all 12 tribes of the line of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, which still exist as Jews.
Can you show me where He says that?....chapter and verse?
And it shall come to pass, that as ye were a curse among the heathen, O house of Judah and house of Israel, so will I save you, and ye shall be a blessing...(Zech.8:13)
So there are two Houses mentioned, the House of Judah (who you state are the Jews) and the House of Israel, who represent the other tribes.
And that is whom Peter was addressing as Jews, both Houses.
[ When Christ says He is King of the Jews, He is King over all 12 tribes of the line of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, which still exist as Jews. ]
Can you show me where He says that?....chapter and verse?
Ofcourse, Christ is King over all 12 tribes, because that is the unconditional fullment of the Davidic Covenant (Ps.89:33-35), which is a united Kingdom (Ezek.48)
So, now you are trying to deny that Christ isn't the King of the other 10 tribes?
Boy, you have really gone off the deep end!
The House of Israel refers to the Nothern tribes, not the House of Judah.
So according to your definition they shouldn't be called 'Jews' since that only refers to the House of Judah.
Since the separation of the Kingdom, the House of Israel always refers to the 10 tribes, not to the House of Judah.
All of Israel was present when the Lord returned, not just the Southern tribes.
You are a very confused person.