You wrote: "Still, filioque continued to be used by the Franks and spread to the Germans. The filioque began to be used in Rome, probably first at the coronation of Henry II in 1014. Historians see this as a passive acceptance by the pope (Benedict VIII) due to his reliance on the Germans for military protection. From that time, the Romans began adding the filioque to the creed and have continued doing so."
Oh, so now it's the Germano-Latin Church? ROFLOL!!!
So you were wrong again?
Where's the evidence for any of this? I see posts with no reputable citations. You cited a book that actually contradicted you. Now you cut and paste Romanides who is not taken by most (other than Orthodox!) to be a reputable historian. As one reader wrote: "If Fr. Romanides told me the sky was blue, I'd stick my head out the window, just to double check."
You are being disingenuous. The link clearly states and the position I mentioned is that the innovations of the Franks influenced the Latin church so that after them the Church is more accurately called the Frankish-Latin Church. So spreading it to the Germans does not alter the fact that what was spread to the Germans was the Frankish rite. The Germans did not change the rite to get to name it after themselves - which is the criteria for accreditation.