Well, how about when Non-Protestants deny it....because I don't recall ever claiming to be one.
The great city in Mesopotamia was no longer such in the first century.
True...it may not have been, but the area "Beyond the Euphrates" was referred to by Josephus in the first century as containing the remnant of the ten tribes of Israel and their numbers were not to be estimated.
[Josephus "Antiquities" Book XI, Chapter V, Paragraph 2] "When Esdras had received this epistle, he was very joyful, and began to worship God, and confessed that he had been the cause of the king's great favor to him, and that for the same reason he gave all the thanks to God. So he read the epistle at Babylon to those Jews that were there; but he kept the epistle itself, and sent a copy of it to all those of his own nation that were in Media. And when these Jews had understood what piety the king had towards God, and what kindness he had for Esdras, they were all greatly pleased; nay, many of them took their effects with them, and came to Babylon, as very desirous of going down to Jerusalem; but then the entire body of the people of Israel remained in that country; wherefore there are but two tribes in Asia and Europe subject to the Romans, while the ten tribes are beyond Euphrates till now, and are an immense multitude, and not to be estimated by numbers."
And if you cracked open that Bible of yours you might recall Acts 10? Did St. Paul's designation as Apostle to the Gentiles stop him from preaching to Jews? Nope. He preached to Jews FIRST in each city he visited in fact.
Yup.....the reason for that is this: [Acts 9:15] But the Lord said to Ananias, "Go! This man is my chosen instrument to carry my name before the Gentiles and their kings and before the people of Israel." Paul was told he could speak with both Israelite and Gentile.....Peter received no such commission.
Your turn. Give us that proof that does not exist....except in the false doctrines of your organization.
You wrote:
"Well, how about when Non-Protestants deny it....because I don't recall ever claiming to be one."
You didn't have to claim it.
"True...it may not have been, but the area "Beyond the Euphrates" was referred to by Josephus in the first century as containing the remnant of the ten tribes of Israel and their numbers were not to be estimated."
Babylon was still a term used to refer to ancient, pagan Rome.
"Yup.....the reason for that is this: [Acts 9:15] But the Lord said to Ananias, "Go! This man is my chosen instrument to carry my name before the Gentiles and their kings and before the people of Israel." Paul was told he could speak with both Israelite and Gentile.....Peter received no such commission."
So you are claiming St. Peter was acting beyond his mandate? ROFLOL!!! Peter could preach to whomever would listen. Again, you forget Acts 10.
"Your turn. Give us that proof that does not exist....except in the false doctrines of your organization."
I already proved that Babylon was a common code word for Rome. I already proved that this is recogized by Protestants like yourself (even perhaps those who didn't have enough courage or intelligence to admit they were Protestant). And my Church has no false doctrines, nor have you presented any evidence to the contrary.
Oh, and you're still a Protestant.