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To: annalex; Blogger

"You mean one could inflect "theou" in genitive but not inflect "stylos", and still refer stylos to theos? (I am using stylos and not the other noun and adjective because I am fairly sure of how to inflect stylos)."

I think so, yes. If stylos were an adjective, it would be different. I just don't see it being said that way. More likely one would say a clause beginning with tou. But then again, my Greek cousins tell me I speak Greek like a Spanish cow (same thing my French friends say about my French)! :)


9,350 posted on 02/07/2007 4:42:05 AM PST by Kolokotronis (Christ is Risen, and you, o death, are annihilated!)
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To: Kolokotronis; Blogger
If stylos were an adjective, it would be different

Well, by that logic, "zontos" is a participle working as a an adjective, and it is not inflected. You are correct, that "tou" would be necessary as well. I think Blogger's reading is to Greek what Japanese appliance instructions are to English.

9,369 posted on 02/07/2007 7:50:44 AM PST by annalex
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