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To: xzins; kosta50; P-Marlowe; Buggman; scripter; Dr. Eckleburg

Conceive, the word used for Mary in Luke 1:31 is the same word used for Mary's cousin Elizabeth in Luke 1:24, 36 and of Rebecca in Rom. 9:10.


557 posted on 12/07/2006 6:34:39 AM PST by blue-duncan
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To: blue-duncan

Yep. And the contexts clearly indicate the origin of the pregnancy.


560 posted on 12/07/2006 6:40:54 AM PST by xzins (Retired Army Chaplain and proud of it! Supporting our troops means praying for them to WIN!)
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To: blue-duncan
Conceive, the word used for Mary in Luke 1:31 is the same word used for Mary's cousin Elizabeth in Luke 1:24, 36 and of Rebecca in Rom. 9:10.

That's very interesting. Not that I ever thought otherwise... I'm going to look at that when I get home.

569 posted on 12/07/2006 7:34:17 AM PST by scripter ("If it is possible, as far as it depends on you, live at peace with everyone." Romans 12:18)
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To: blue-duncan; xzins; kosta50; P-Marlowe; Buggman; scripter; Dr. Eckleburg
Conceive, the word used for Mary in Luke 1:31 is the same word used for Mary's cousin Elizabeth in Luke 1:24, 36 and of Rebecca in Rom. 9:10

Same only in your English version.

Maybe the authors had a reason to used them all differently. In the case of Elizabeth, the term actually means carnal (lustful) conception. In the case of Rebecca, cohabitation (both lawful and unlawful). In the case of Mat 1:20 the word means to beget.

In the biblical context, all these different terms reflect accurately the circumstances of their pregnacy. Clearly, Mary's pregnancy is treated differently, as not being lustful or carnal (physical). So there was no seed (the original Greek uses the word sperma for "seed").

At any rate, your claim that the terms used are all the same appears to be, let's say, not true, at least in the original.

588 posted on 12/07/2006 11:20:11 AM PST by kosta50 (Eastern Orthodoxy is pure Christianity)
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