Same only in your English version.
Maybe the authors had a reason to used them all differently. In the case of Elizabeth, the term actually means carnal (lustful) conception. In the case of Rebecca, cohabitation (both lawful and unlawful). In the case of Mat 1:20 the word means to beget.
In the biblical context, all these different terms reflect accurately the circumstances of their pregnacy. Clearly, Mary's pregnancy is treated differently, as not being lustful or carnal (physical). So there was no seed (the original Greek uses the word sperma for "seed").
At any rate, your claim that the terms used are all the same appears to be, let's say, not true, at least in the original.
"At any rate, your claim that the terms used are all the same appears to be, let's say, not true,"
Luk 1:24, 31, 36 the word conceive used is sullambanw (sullambano)
Mary: Luke 1:31 "And, behold, thou shalt conceive in thy womb, and bring forth a son, and shalt call his name JESUS."
Elizabeth: Luke 1:24, "And after those days his wife Elisabeth conceived, and hid herself five months, saying,"
Luke 1:36, "And, behold, thy cousin Elisabeth, she hath also conceived a son in her old age: and this is the sixth month with her, who was called barren."
"In the case of Elizabeth, the term actually means carnal (lustful) conception."
It's the same word, sullambanw (sullambano), used to describe Mary's condition.
Mary & Elizabeth both have the word sullambano used (received text) for their conception. Gennao is the other primary word & it means "become." Its context determines its thrust, IIRC.
In short, if Elizabeth's sullambano gets to mean lust, then so does Mary's. I don't think you want to go there
"Clearly, Mary's pregnancy is treated differently, as not being lustful or carnal (physical). So there was no seed (the original Greek uses the word sperma for "seed")."
So then are you saying that the seed of the woman mentioned in Gen. 3:15 does not refer to Jesus?