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To: Alamo-Girl; blue-duncan; Mad Dawg; betty boop; Buggman; Kolokotronis; annalex
Thus when we read Romans 8 – I assert that we should keep that in mind as well. And when we do, we see that the Jewish understanding and the word images expressed in the Greek language reconcile beautifully together

Thank you AG. It goes without saying. I did not mean to imply that somehow the Judaic more detailed concept of the soul was somehow incorrect, but to point to the fact that carnal in no way implies or means a thought process (nous), as is suggested by the imperfect translation of "prhonema" in the KJV's version of Tom 8:7.

My other point was that reading KJV (which is based on a "Greek" source from a Latin tranlsation, a reto-engineered Greek "original!") is capable of creating very misleading concepts precisely because of its poor correspondence with the genuine Greek text.

4,643 posted on 01/09/2007 10:49:49 AM PST by kosta50 (Eastern Orthodoxy is pure Christianity)
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To: kosta50; blue-duncan; Mad Dawg; betty boop; Buggman; Kolokotronis; annalex
Thank you so much for your further explanation, dear kosta50!

Truly I do not have a "problem" with the translations - or their history - and our little sidebar is a good example of why that is so, because the indwelling Holy Spirit of God leads us to Truth. (John 14-17, Romans 8, I Cor 2)

IOW, there is no substantive difference between us even though we have different personal backgrounds and gifts and read in different languages and from different translations.

4,647 posted on 01/09/2007 11:01:52 AM PST by Alamo-Girl
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