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To: kosta50; blue-duncan; Mad Dawg; betty boop; Buggman; Kolokotronis; annalex
Thank you so much for sharing the Greek language interpretation of Romans 8!

Truly I see much of the great Greek philosophers in the writing of the Scriptures after Christ became enfleshed, the term "Logos" for example.

In that regard I do not consider it an accident - but God's hand – that Alexander the Great “normalized” the Greek language. It improved communications throughout the civilized world and enabled the rapid spread of the Gospel of our Lord Jesus Christ.

And of course, Alexander – who was prophesied by Daniel - was the student of Aristotle who was the student of Plato – and thus we should not be amazed to see all of these historical word images converge in the language of the New Testament.

BTW, Justin Martyr emphasized the particular benefit of Plato’s philosophy, which was ultimately supplanted in his life when he became Christian – and he also noted that Plato had gathered some of his understanding from studying Jewish texts when he was in Egypt (as I recall.) He also noted the prophetic nature of some of his writings vis-à-vis Jesus and the cross.

Nevertheless, Paul was clearly a Jew – and not just any, but specifically chosen by Christ and one very, very, very well educated in the law and the prophets.

Thus when we read Romans 8 – I assert that we should keep that in mind as well. And when we do, we see that the Jewish understanding and the word images expressed in the Greek language reconcile beautifully together – and also with the revelation of God through Creation (Psalms 19, Romans 1:20)

4,634 posted on 01/09/2007 10:40:03 AM PST by Alamo-Girl
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To: Alamo-Girl; blue-duncan; Mad Dawg; betty boop; Buggman; Kolokotronis; annalex
Thus when we read Romans 8 – I assert that we should keep that in mind as well. And when we do, we see that the Jewish understanding and the word images expressed in the Greek language reconcile beautifully together

Thank you AG. It goes without saying. I did not mean to imply that somehow the Judaic more detailed concept of the soul was somehow incorrect, but to point to the fact that carnal in no way implies or means a thought process (nous), as is suggested by the imperfect translation of "prhonema" in the KJV's version of Tom 8:7.

My other point was that reading KJV (which is based on a "Greek" source from a Latin tranlsation, a reto-engineered Greek "original!") is capable of creating very misleading concepts precisely because of its poor correspondence with the genuine Greek text.

4,643 posted on 01/09/2007 10:49:49 AM PST by kosta50 (Eastern Orthodoxy is pure Christianity)
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