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OK, these do indicate that all men are generally sinners.

It means that all men specifically are sinners.

You have no scriptural or apostolic authority to back up your claim that Mary never sinned. Thus she must be included in the "all" in Romans 3:23 and Romans 5:12. She must also be included in the "none" in Mark 10:18 and if she herself claimed to have no sin, then she would have to be numbered among the deceived in 1 John 1:8.

She called Jesus her savior. If she were without sin, then she would be without a need for a savior.

Unless you can come up with some scriptural references to Mary's perfection, we really don't have anything further to discuss on this issue.

It means that all men specifically are sinners.

You have no scriptural or apostolic authority to back up your claim that Mary never sinned. Thus she must be included in the "all" in Romans 3:23 and Romans 5:12. She must also be included in the "none" in Mark 10:18 and if she herself claimed to have no sin, then she would have to be numbered among the deceived in 1 John 1:8.

She called Jesus her savior. If she were without sin, then she would be without a need for a savior.

Yep.

You have no scriptural or apostolic authority to back up your claim that Mary never sinned

She was filled with grace. That's the same as saying she was made sinless. The Orthodox hold that this happened at the Annunciation. The Catholics hold that it happened at her conception by her parents. Either way, she was made sinless the same way as we are made sinless through God's grace.

Our disobedience is made into obedience. Or as +Augustine puts it "[A]ll the commandments are considered fulfilled when whatever is not fulfilled is forgiven." [The Fathers of the Church, Vol. 60, Retractions, p.81]. We believe that once she was filled with grace she chose not to sin.

It means that all men specifically are sinners.

No it doesn't. It is your interpretation. The two references in Romans have a certain context: they describe man before he knows Christ. In Romans 5 "all" and "many" are used interchangeably. Certainly St. Paul did not mean that Christ himself has sinned; here is at least one exception. Children before age of reason is another, at least in the context of Romans 3.

Mary definitely needed a savior, -- this is Who cleansed her of all sin. To say that because Mary needed a savior, she sinned is like saying that because I arrived to Fresno by car I must have been to Denver. It is illogical.

"She called Jesus her savior. If she were without sin, then she would be without a need for a savior."

The reason Mary is without sin is because of Christ. She did not make herself sinless. You know that. Catholics know that. When you do not sin (or any other human for that matter), is it you who causes that purity? Mary was and is without sin because God graced her with that condition and reality. God is her savior. Christ is God. Mary did not save herself or remain sinless by her own power.

Had Mary accomplished even half the things you falsely assume Catholic's believe and teach, we would have to worship Mary. We don't. But I do see clearly that you were taught that we worship Mary. And by your words I see clearly that you believe we worship Mary, even when we tell you we don't. Thank God our faith is not based on what you believe about us. If that were the case, we'd be lost.

And at this point I have come to understand that you need to find and attack untrue Catholic "windmills" that do not exist. I respect your right to do so, as I respect my son's right to play PlayStation games.

If she were without sin, then she would be without a need for a savior.

*She was saved before she sinned. She never sinned after she was saved