[blue-duncan]

Jesus was sinless and did not need the baptism of repentance but submitted to baptism out of obedience to the law. Mary was impure due to the blood of birth and needed the purification rite physically and spiritually. The two obediences are not the same.

[kosta50]

Mary was impure due to the blood of birth and needed the purification rite physically and spiritually

Mary could not claim to have delivered a child and tell the Jewish priests that His brith was miraculous. Therefore, as far as the world was concerned, she had an "ordinary child" born "naturally," which would make her "impure" for 40 days.

The fact is that the early Church, and her contemporaries (i.e. +Ignatius) considered her to be the immaculate Mother of God.

[adiaireton8]

The original point that you were trying to make (in 283) was to show that Mary undergoing the purification rite shows that Mary was impure. But the example of Jesus being baptized by John shows that just because one undergoes a rite of cleansing, this does not prove that the person undergoing the rite was unclean. Therefore, Mary's undergoing the rite of purification does not show that Mary was impure or unclean.

-A8