[kosta50]

Mary was impure due to the blood of birth and needed the purification rite physically and spiritually

Mary could not claim to have delivered a child and tell the Jewish priests that His brith was miraculous. Therefore, as far as the world was concerned, she had an "ordinary child" born "naturally," which would make her "impure" for 40 days.

The fact is that the early Church, and her contemporaries (i.e. +Ignatius) considered her to be the immaculate Mother of God.

[blue-duncan]

"The fact is that the early Church, and her contemporaries (i.e. +Ignatius) considered her to be the immaculate Mother of God."

Luke,the physician, the writer of the gospel did not consider her the "immaculate Mother of God." She had to go through the purification rites just like every other mother in Israel because, Lev. 12: 2"..If a woman have conceived seed, and born a man child...". Gen. 3:15, "And I will put enmity between thee and the woman, and between thy seed and her seed;". There isn't any question that she was impure according to the law; not virtually impure, actually impure, no matter what the Church said after.

[PleaseNoMore]

"Mary could not claim to have delivered a child and tell the Jewish priests that His brith was miraculous. Therefore, as far as the world was concerned, she had an "ordinary child" born "naturally," which would make her "impure" for 40 days."

So, "sinless" Mary "lied" and went along with what the law required for "show"?