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To: Texas_shutterbug
Simplifying a bit, there are two ways to be tempted: externaly or internally. To be tempted internally means that one's own disordered desires play a role in the temptation. Jesus had no disordered desires. Therefore, the devil could truly tempt Him externally [the way Adam and Eve were originally tempted], but not internally, i.e. not by making use of His [Jesus's] disordered desires, since Jesus had no disordered desires.

So the fact that Jesus was tempted [externally] does not nullify my previous point about permanent abstinence during marriage being permissible when neither spouse is subject to temptation, because there I was talking about *internal* temptation. And Mary did not have any disordered desires, and Joseph likewise, presumably at least did not have disordered sexual desires.

-A8

240 posted on 12/05/2006 3:58:36 PM PST by adiaireton8 ("There is no greater evil one can suffer than to hate reasonable discourse." - Plato, Phaedo 89d)
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To: adiaireton8
"And Mary did not have any disordered desires, and Joseph likewise, presumably at least did not have disordered sexual desires."

Normal heterosexual temptations are NOT a disordered desire! That desire was put in us by God for us to procreate and as an expression of love. It is one thing to say that they gave up this "good" for something better; it's quite another thing to imply that such sexual desires are disordered.

241 posted on 12/05/2006 4:12:01 PM PST by Texas_shutterbug
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