None of those passage state that.
Rev. 12 is referring to the nation of Israel.
Even your RCC Bible states that 'the woman adorned with the sun, the moon and the stars (images taken from Gn.37,9-10) symbolizes God's people of the Old and New Testament. The Israel of old gave birth to the Messiah and then became the new Israel (NAB, footnote, p.1438) <
That is not keeping the 'word' as Mary did keep the 'Word' in her womb. It is how we imitate her, because this is how Christ taught us to venerate her in Luke 11.
Christ never told anyone to venerate Mary in Lk 11,(or anywhere else for that matter)
He told people to honor His word (...it emphasizes that attentiveness to God's word is more important than biological relationship to Jesus' NAB,p.1165) where is Mary ever addressed as one without sin? In Luke 1:28.
It does?
Well, why don't you post it and show that it says that Mary was without sin.
Mary offered a sacrifice for her sins in Lk.2. The NAB states in its footnote that Mary gave an offering for an expiration of her sin (pg.1146)
Christ doesn't call Mary, 'the woman' he calls her 'woman' instead of mother ... Christ said 'who is my mother or brethren'(Mk.3:33) Christ calls her "woman" because Genesis refers to "woman", whatever the grammatical framework happens to fit. Mark 3:33 repeats the call to sanctity through Mary also made in Luke 11, and already discussed.
Christ calls her 'woman', not the woman.
Nothing you said fits anything in scripture, and goes against your own RCC Bible notes.
Why don't you pick up the Catechism if you have these questions: Mary - Mother of Christ, Mother of the Church
And why don't you read a Bible and find out the truth.
Mary offered a sacrifice for her sins in Lk.2
No, she did not and the scripture does not say she did. In Luke 1:28 the angel calls her "full of grace", this excludes any sin in her.
You want to underatand Mary, read the catechism. There is also a good book by Pope John Paul II called the Theotokos:
