Mary offered a sacrifice for her sins in Lk.2
No, she did not and the scripture does not say she did. In Luke 1:28 the angel calls her "full of grace", this excludes any sin in her.
You want to underatand Mary, read the catechism. There is also a good book by Pope John Paul II called the Theotokos:
Well, you are free to discard anything you like, just don't pretend you have any scriptural support for what you believe, because you don't.
Mary offered a sacrifice for her sins in Lk.2 No, she did not and the scripture does not say she did. In Luke 1:28 the angel calls her "full of grace", this excludes any sin in her.
Not according to the NAB note.
Lk 2:24 states that she offered a sacrifice according to the levitical law (12:2),
The woman who gives birth to a boy is unable for forty days to touch anything sacred or to enter the temple area by reason of her legal impurity. At the end of this period she is required to offer a year-old lamb as a burnt offering and a turtle dove or young pigeon as an expiration of sin. The woman who could not afford a lamb offered instead two turtledoves or two young pideons, as Mary does here (p.1147)
So Mary offered up a sin offering like any other Jewish woman did after having a child as a sin offering.
You want to underatand Mary, read the catechism. There is also a good book by Pope John Paul II called the Theotokos
Thank you, but I am unconcerned about Mary.
The only one I am concerned about understanding is the Lord Jesus Christ.