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To: kosta50; Blogger
Yet, the fact remains that the Apostles used this "questionable" Scripture as OT reference in a vast majority of cases.

Well, if it was inspired scripture, then why didn't they use it in all cases. I found Blogger's 11,196 (along with the full linked article) very helpful in answering questions like these. Again, it's not a matter of declaring the Septuagint to be all error, just that it is not inerrant, thus disqualifying it from being scripture. It is reasonable to assume that when the Apostles saw clear error they did not quote from it.

11,202 posted on 03/02/2007 12:02:25 AM PST by Forest Keeper
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To: Forest Keeper
Again, it's not a matter of declaring the Septuagint to be all error, just that it is not inerrant, thus disqualifying it from being scripture

The Apostles considered it Scripture. They quote from it. They use is as Scriputre (OT). The number of verses where they quote verses different from those of the Pharisaical bible is astaunding, and so is the Protestant denial:

Be your own witness.

Ref http://www.scripturecatholic.com/septuagint.html

If any of these agree with the KJV or any current English Bible, that means you are reading Septuagint as Scriputre and not the Hebrew Bible. And I can tell you Matt. 1:23 / Isaiah 7:14 in YOUR Bible is from the Septuagint!

11,207 posted on 03/02/2007 3:41:57 PM PST by kosta50 (Eastern Orthodoxy is pure Christianity)
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