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To: Forest Keeper
Again, it's not a matter of declaring the Septuagint to be all error, just that it is not inerrant, thus disqualifying it from being scripture

The Apostles considered it Scripture. They quote from it. They use is as Scriputre (OT). The number of verses where they quote verses different from those of the Pharisaical bible is astaunding, and so is the Protestant denial:

Be your own witness.

Ref http://www.scripturecatholic.com/septuagint.html

If any of these agree with the KJV or any current English Bible, that means you are reading Septuagint as Scriputre and not the Hebrew Bible. And I can tell you Matt. 1:23 / Isaiah 7:14 in YOUR Bible is from the Septuagint!

11,207 posted on 03/02/2007 3:41:57 PM PST by kosta50 (Eastern Orthodoxy is pure Christianity)
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To: kosta50
The Apostles considered it Scripture. They quote from it. They use is as Scripture (OT).

All we know for sure is that they approved of some of it, or maybe even the vast majority of it. Quoting several lines does not say that they believed the whole thing was inspired. I'm sure we could quote passages from Mormon writings with approval, but that doesn't mean we accept their texts as scripture. If they did accept all of it as scripture, then why did they not quote from it exclusively?

I read through your whole list and while there are clear differences, I did not see any major contradictions. The principles are still the same. I can read the NIV or the KJV (or others) and be fully confident in any of them.

And I can tell you Matt. 1:23 / Isaiah 7:14 in YOUR Bible is from the Septuagint!

No argument here. That's what it says. Here is the note in my Bible on Is. 7:14 :

God's sign to Ahaz was that of a virgin and her son, who would not be more than 12 to 14 years old before Syria and Israel would be captured in 722 B.C. (When the prophecy was spoken, it probably referred to the woman, a virgin at that time, who Isaiah took later as his second wife, 8:1-4, his first wife presumably having died after the birth of Shear-Jashub, 7:3.) The virgin of Isaiah's prophecy is a type of the virgin Mary, who, by the Holy Spirit, miraculously conceived Jesus Christ. See Matt 1:23. The Hebrew word here that is translated "virgin" is found elsewhere in the OT in Gen. 24:43, Ex. 2:8, Ps. 68:25, Prov. 30:19, Song 1:3, 6:8, and in those instances refers only to a chaste maiden who is unmarried.

11,212 posted on 03/03/2007 1:47:38 AM PST by Forest Keeper
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To: kosta50; fortheDeclaration
If any of these agree with the KJV or any current English Bible, that means you are reading Septuagint as Scriputre and not the Hebrew Bible.

Is there any way to know that for certain? How do we know that many or most of these were not taken from the New Testament and just inserted into the Septuagint during the New Testament period, or during some of the revisions of the Septuagint, rather than vice versa???

Are the readings here from the Septuagint of Codex B, or Sinaiticus, or Alexandrinus or some later revisions? Hasn't the Septuagint been under revision for 2000 years and no one is really sure just what the pre-Origen Septuagint really was???

11,213 posted on 03/03/2007 4:12:28 AM PST by Uncle Chip (TRUTH : Ignore it. Deride it. Allegorize it. Interpret it. But you can't ESCAPE it.)
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