Those weren't Western Europeans or Protestants making all those copies of the Byzantine text and leaving the Alexandrian text type on the shelf. Those were Greek monks and scribes taking their time to make cursive copies of the Byzantine text instead of the Alexandrian.
If everyone in Eastern Europe thought that Codex Alexandrinus or the Alexandrian Sinaiticus and Vaticanus were so pure and authoritative, then why weren't they making more Greek copies of them ?? Did someone forget to notify the Greek scribes of an official change in Church policy back there, or did these monks and scribes just decide on their own to keep copying the Byzantine text and ignore church authorities???
BTW The KJV was based upon Beza's 1598 Greek Text, and though he no doubt owed much of it to Erasmus's 2nd Greek Text, dozens of Greek manuscripts had arrived in the West during those 70 years, leading to a much more accurate Greek text by that time.
It appears that as the Moslems were moving into eastern Europe, the EO monasteries were sending their valuable Greek manuscripts to the West. Thus Beza had a large collection of Greek manuscripts from which to work.
Are you saying that Tyndale did not use the corrupt Textus Receptus that eventually resulted in the KJV?
If everyone in Eastern Europe thought that Codex Alexandrinus or the Alexandrian Sinaiticus and Vaticanus were so pure and authoritative, then why weren't they making more Greek copies of them
They are not as "Christian" as the Church would have liked them to be. Just as Comma Johanneum found its way into the bibles of the West, the Eatsern manuscripts also have their own sellection of additions. The whole library, east and west, is corrupt! Forgeries on top of forgeries!
BTW The KJV was based upon Beza's 1598 Greek Text
The Geneva Bible was largely based on Tyndale's work, which was based on the corrupt Textus Receptus. All this then ended up being dumped into the KJV.
We are just going in circles here looking for a way out, UC.