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To: blue-duncan
If anything, demonology among the Jews was something the lower (common) classes believed, but Judaism never taught, so the mention of scribes in the NT is somewhat interesting from that point of view. The Jewish Encyclopedia writes more on this.

In Talmud and Mishna the popular demonology was accepted by the end of the 3rd century AD.

Your arguments are with Judaism. Read any Jewish sources, modern or ancient, and you will find that Satan has no power of his own but must obtain permission from God. Thus, in Judaism, Satan receives his orders from God.

The concept of devil, prince of demons, etc. being synonymous with Satan is first encountered in "Apocrypha" and from there, through the use of Septuagint as Scripture by the Apostles, it finds its place in the New Testament.

10,047 posted on 02/10/2007 8:22:27 PM PST by kosta50 (Eastern Orthodoxy is pure Christianity)
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To: kosta50

"Your arguments are with Judaism."

No they are not with Judaism. Where do you think that the anonymous writers of the apocryphal books got their ideas of Satan/Lucifer, devils, evil spirits, familiar spirits? Although some of the occult religions had fully developed concepts, the Jews in the intertestimental period were not occultists and were not idolators after returning from the exile. When Jesus taught a fully developed understanding of Satan/Beelzebub, devils, evil spirits it was not from the occult religions or an idea alien to Judaism. He was teaching something they were familiar with from their tradition, not from questionable books not acepted by Judaism.


10,077 posted on 02/11/2007 11:12:01 AM PST by blue-duncan
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