"Your arguments are with Judaism."
No they are not with Judaism. Where do you think that the anonymous writers of the apocryphal books got their ideas of Satan/Lucifer, devils, evil spirits, familiar spirits? Although some of the occult religions had fully developed concepts, the Jews in the intertestimental period were not occultists and were not idolators after returning from the exile. When Jesus taught a fully developed understanding of Satan/Beelzebub, devils, evil spirits it was not from the occult religions or an idea alien to Judaism. He was teaching something they were familiar with from their tradition, not from questionable books not acepted by Judaism.
Wed don't know. These books are part of the Septuagint and were therefore used by many (Greek-speaking) Jews (including the Apostles) as Scripture. Therefore no one considered them 'idolatrous.' The Jews of jesus' times used the Septuagint to a large extent.
However, Pharisaical/rabbinical Judaism rejected the Septuagint and all its books in Jamnia, 100 AD.
This is where the Protestant logic escapes me: your OT canon is that of the Christ-denying Jamnia Jews, the Pharisaical "Hebrew Bible" which contains none of the demonoglogy found in Septuagint (which predates Christ), which is in agreement with what is in the New Testament?
If they were part of Septuagint, then they were Scripture, which is why the nascent Church kept them.