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To: adiaireton8
If Rome was known as Babylon, then why didn't all the "Fathers" refer to the Church of Babylon instead of the Church of Rome?

Again, another argument from silence. You seem to have a thought pattern that makes frequent use of and gives great weight to arguments from silence. A review of the basic informal fallacies might be helpful to you.

Was that your answer to the question?

1,240 posted on 10/24/2006 5:58:31 PM PDT by ladyinred (RIP my precious Lamb Chop)
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To: ladyinred
Yes. The question falsely assumes that a thing cannot be referred to by more than one term.

-A8

1,242 posted on 10/24/2006 6:54:38 PM PDT by adiaireton8 ("There is no greater evil one can suffer than to hate reasonable discourse." - Plato, Phaedo 89d)
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To: ladyinred

Now, dear heart, . . . please avoid getting your hopes up.

Pontifical traditional organizations are blessed with such ancient fossilized columns of truth that

THEY AND THEY ALONE

ARE AUTHORIZED TO ASK QUESTIONS and expect an answer.

THEY harumph, do NOT answer questions!

So shape up in your expectations.

[Oh, dear, there I go again. Maybe it was something in the teah I drank while waiting for the cone 10's to fall in the kiln? Or was it one of those skupposedly questionable revelations from the ethers having nothing to do with truth or reality or anything else edifying, supposedly. In this case, that might be right.]


1,262 posted on 10/24/2006 9:22:10 PM PDT by Quix (LET GOD ARISE AND HIS ENEMIES BE SCATTERED. LET ISRAEL CALL ON GOD AS THEIRS! & ISLAM FLUSH ITSELF)
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