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To: Iscool

Can you please tell me why Paul would give 2 chapters on speaking in toungues when they would be gone?

Can you tell me where in scripture the perfect has been defined from 1 Cor 13:10?

If speaking in tongues was a known language, why did Paul do it more than anyone he knew?

What does it mean in Eph 6 when we are commanded to pray in the Holy Spirit?

I used to teach Baptists baptist theology. Then I actually read what the bible says and stopped listening to the Baptist theology. Perhaps you will aslo.


96 posted on 08/17/2006 12:32:28 PM PDT by Rhadaghast (Yeshua haMashiach hu Adonai Tsidkenu)
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To: Rhadaghast

Acts 2:11 shows that the tongues used by the early Church were words in legitimate human languages--ones that those people otherwise were never taught. It was not babbling nonsense.


97 posted on 08/17/2006 12:50:47 PM PDT by ConservativeMind
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To: Rhadaghast
Can you please tell me why Paul would give 2 chapters on speaking in toungues when they would be gone?

I used to teach Baptists baptist theology. Then I actually read what the bible says and stopped listening to the Baptist theology. Perhaps you will aslo.

Since you are the teacher and I'm the student, how about you tell me...

106 posted on 08/17/2006 6:41:52 PM PDT by Iscool
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