) is used in both instances. This should be readily recognized...Peter is often referred to in the epistles as "Cephas".
Nevertheless, I think the argument still stands that Christ did not have this distinction in mind when he made this statement--1) because he gave the name in Aramaic not Greek, which is proved by John 1:42, and 2) because the Greek of Matt 16 has the word "taute" = "same" = "Thou art Rock, and upon this SAME rock, I shall build my Church"
Well done, Claud!
You're tempting me to set aside CPA studying and get back into Greek!
I haven't had a chance yet to check my Lexicon, but you raise an interesting point that I will see if the distinction is still present in 1st. Century AD Greek.
) is used in both instances. This should be readily recognized...Peter is often referred to in the epistles as "Cephas".
In the interest of following up, I checked my Liddell-Scott this morning and Iscool is right. There was a distinction between petros "stone" and petra "rock, mass of rock"--at least in Attic Greek of the 4th century B.C. Whether that distinction held in the 1st century NT Greek, I do not know.
Nevertheless, I think the argument still stands that Christ did not have this distinction in mind when he made this statement--1) because he gave the name in Aramaic not Greek, which is proved by John 1:42, and 2) because the Greek of Matt 16 has the word "taute" = "same" = "Thou art Rock, and upon this SAME rock, I shall build my Church"
100 posted on 06/09/2006 6:34:37 AM MDT by Claud
Did the Ru'ach HaKodesh breath the Word of G-d in Koine Greek or in Aramaic ? What a gift : The ability to read the mind of G-d.
b'shem Y'shua
"Whether that distinction held in the 1st century NT Greek, I do not know."
Not really. It honestly is a play on words. I think your first explanation is linguistically correct.