Frogive me. Being a Noachide, I am not an expert on the Talmud. If CHaZa"L say the Torah was given in the Seventy Languages, then they certainly meant what they said (we know that HaShem spoke the two words zakhor and shamor with regard to the commandment of Shabbat at the same time). However, Hebrew remains the original language and it was in Hebrew that it was written down and only the original Hebrew contains the original Holy Letters dictated to Moses, who wrote them down. Translations give only the surface sense, but the original holy letters contain all the meanings.
That being said, I find it puzzling why with regard to the entire post you choose to focus only on my remark about the originality of Hebrew. I also find your hostility to me puzzling. What in my post could possibly have offended you so?
You speak of the "Holy Torah, Written and Oral," and then you say you don't really know the Talmud (Oral Law, for those in the Peanut Gallery). I just think that non-Jews might take umbrage with your attempt here to play rabbi, and when that happens it hurts me.
You wrote: Truly the Holy Torah, Written and Oral, is a single Torah which was given to Israel and not to anyone else.
I think it says that the Torah was given simultaneously in the 70 known languages of the World. The tradition is that the Torah belongs to everyone, not just us (B'nai Yisrael). Do you object to all those Torah translations found in many hotel and motel rooms? (The Gideons are not Jewish.)
ML/NJ