Since all ancient orthodox Christians baptized infants please tell me how infant baptism was introduced by Rome.
Also, since we know that entire families, households were baptized in the NT and 8 day old infant Jewish boys were welcomed into the covenant through circumcision isn't it reasonable to think on those facts alone that infant baptism was not "introduced" by Rome but was always something of a Christian practice?
And we also know from the NT that only believers were to be baptized.
What is your basis for assuming that these households included infants.
8 day old infant Jewish boys were welcomed into the covenant through circumcision...
Every child born into a Jewish family was automatically in a covenanted relation with God. Circumcision had nothing to do with that relationship. If so, how did Jewish girls enter the covented relationship?
isn't it reasonable to think on those facts alone that infant baptism was not "introduced" by Rome but was always something of a Christian practice?
Baptism has no relationship to circumcision. Only "believer baptism" was practiced by the NT church. Read Mark 16:16 for Jesus specific command on the subject. The Apostles taught, and the NT church practiced that which Jesus had commanded.