Posted on 02/27/2006 12:06:12 PM PST by HarleyD
Question
Is cussing necessarily a sin?
Answer
The short answer is "no, not necessarily." Here's the long answer:
I think the language issue is largely one of wisdom. Passages like Proverbs 10:31; Matthew 15:11; Ephesians 4:29; Colossians 3:8; and James 3 certainly show us the importance of our speech and its content, but I don't think they are clear enough to suggest that some words may never be used to convey that content. I think these verses are best explained as exhortations to use our speech in profitable manners which glorify God. But the actual words we use to accomplish that may vary from setting to setting. At some times, profanity is the proper way to communicate clearly and to glorify God. I'll provide a true example, with the hopes that it does not offend you too deeply:
My friend and fellow seminarian was witnessing on the street to some of the Goth crowd who were into Wicca. Their own language was vulgar, but they did not perceive it as vulgar. In presenting the gospel to them, in an attempt to communicate to them on a level that they could really understand, my friend pointed out the fact to them that since the Fall, the world has been "totally f**ked up." Their response was a contemplative and agreeing "yeah." In my judgment, this falls under the category of being all things to all people (1 Cor. 9:19-22).
On a very important level, a word is just a word. It is society's perception of that word that makes it vulgar, or rather, the perception of a portion of society. Parts of society consider some words "impolite," "profane" or "vulgar" regardless of the content they convey, but other parts of society do not consider these same words to be vulgar. In fact, "vulgar" does not describe a word as "bad" or "evil," but rather "common" or "low class." "Profane" does not mean "evil" or "gross," but simply "worldly" or "non-sacred." The "bad words" are the ones that cultured society does not use, but which lower class people (or by association, the "bad people") do use.
Over time, in our society these words began to cause negative reactions in some people because they considered them to be offensive. However, there is nothing magical/spiritual in the sounds or meanings of the words themselves that caused this association. Rather, it was the contexts in which these words were generally used. For nearly every profane word usage, there is another non-profane way to say the same thing that does not cause the same negative reactions in those who are more sensitive to profanity. But this does not mean that the words themselves are somehow evil sounds.
Perhaps the most important factor that makes me lean "in favor" of profanity is the fact that the Bible itself uses language in ways that may be considered profane, and it nowhere explicitly prohibits the use of indelicate language. Examples of "vulgar" language in the Bible are impossible to "prove," but are also impossible to "disprove." The evidence, however, seems to favor vulgarity. Here are a few samples:
• In 2 Chronicles 10:10, the young men tell Rehoboam to tell Jeroboam that his "little finger" is thicker than his father's loins were. In that text, "little finger" is probably a euphemism for his penis. Notice that when he actually confronts Jeroboam, Rehoboam omits that phrase. This editing probably indicates that the phrase was inappropriate (therefore not spoken to Jeroboam's face), yet we do find it in the Bible.
• Ezekiel 23:20 describes in quite lewd terms the genitalia and seminal emissions of those engaged in adultery (this is metaphoric use of vulgar language). In fact, the whole chapter tends in this direction.
• 2 Kings 18:27 provides an example of vulgar language that would be hard to deny – eating and drinking your own body excrement is offensive in virtually any culture.
• Tsoach, which is one of the words used in 2 Kings 18:27, also appears in Isaiah 28:8 with potentially offensive meaning, and both words from 2 Kings 18:27 (tsoach and shen) also appear in the parallel to that verse in Isaiah 36:12. Tshoach also appears in Ezekiel 4:12 in what is meant to be a shocking context.
And what are we to do with actual English speaking cultures or sub-cultures wherein no language is taboo? In their "dialects," these words do not carry the same offensive meaning that they do in the Christian, polite, or high societies. To complicate the picture even further, those in higher echelons of Western society use vulgar language. How do we now determine what is inappropriate language? What is the standard? Do we stick by cultural taboos? If so, from what do they derive authority?
Yes, we can broadly apply ideas such as "give no offense to anyone" (1 Cor. 10:32), which is really about eating food sacrificed to idols. But even in that context, the point is that there are appropriate times to do the "offensive" thing. We can also appeal to passages like Ephesians 4:29: "Let no unwholesome word proceed from your mouth." But again, the Bible does not tell us that certain words fall into this category. Rather, the point seems to be the effect or intention of the words, not whether or not those words are acceptable to sensitive or polite society.
Now, I say this as someone who formerly used profanity extensively, but who now feels uncomfortable even to hear it used. I don't use that language because in my current society people don't appreciate it, and they take it as greatly offensive. I am among those who don't use it, so I don't use it. However, if my situation were reversed, it might be less offensive to use it than to appear "better than" the people whose company I was keeping.
What the heart is proceed from the mouth...
Thou shalt not take the name of the Lord thy God in vain; for the Lord will not hold him guiltless that taketh his name in vain.
Saying GD is a sin
...or Jesus ("I and my Father are one")
Oh, and it just so happens his absent father was a drunk.
You know, I've wondered about that for a long time. Seriously.
The word rendered "take" in KJV is the Hebrew word "nasa' " (Str 05375). It is usually rendered "lift up," "bear up," "exult," etc.
The word rendered "the name" in KJV is the Hebrew word "shem" (Str 08034). The interesting thing about this word is that it not only is used of a person's name, but also of his reputation, fame, renown. (There are two other words used, naqab and qara' that don't have that implication to them).
The word rendered "in vain" in KJV is the Hebrew word "shav' " (Str 07723). It means emptiness, vanity, lying, worthlessness, etc.
I bring these two words up because I question if it is merely saying "GD" or "JC" or whatever, or if the meaning is much more profound than that...is it maybe more like any invocation of the Lord in an empty fashion?
Is making a statement that you are going to pray for a person and lift them up to God, when you really have no intention of doing so, a violation of this commandment?
Is stating that "God will get you" -- when He really won't -- a violation of this commandment?
Is invoking any kind of a "divine" curse on somebody a violation of this commandment?
Is taking God lightly in any way a violation of this commandment?
Something I've considered for a long time. Thought it'd be interesting to you folk...fwiw
Profanity is at worst an impolite violation of societal norms. Blasphemy is not. That's why, in my mind, using a scatological term is much less of a problem than shouting "G------m it!"
An interesting story. One of my close friend's grandfather is an old Methodist preacher. One Sunday morning, he stood up to preach in a mostly-older congregation. He said, "People are dying and going to hell, and you don't give a sh-t." Pause for effect. I guess you could have heard a pin drop. "In fact, you're more offended that I said 'sh-t' than you are at the fact that people are dying and going to hell, and you're doing nothing to stop it."
A very powerful message - but one that you have to have some serious gravitas to pull off. I definately couldn't.
I wish I never learned to curse.
I would say so. We should never speak or think about God except with the utmost reverence.
Another way to violate the commandment is to claim authority from God that one does not have. That it what a false prophet does. For example, someone who tells his fellows that God wants them to commit murder is taking the Lord's name in vain. (We have seen a lot of that in the world lately.)
Oh, that is rich.
Heidelberg Q&A No. 99:
Q. What is God's will for us
in the third commandment?
A. That we neither blaspheme nor misuse the name of God
by cursing, perjury, or unnecessary oaths,
nor share in such horrible sins
by being silent bystanders.
In a word, it requires
that we use the holy name of God
only with reverence and awe,
so that we may properly
confess him,
pray to him,
and praise him in everything we do and say.
Oh, and it just so happens his absent father was a drunk.
So if unsaved people see you chugging a Breweiser on a hot day, how they gonna tell the difference between you and the lost souls down at the local pub???
And if you're going around asking God to damn this and damn that, what if He takes you up on it??? And if Christians and non-Christians act alike, how's anyone going to separate you (in their mind)???
1Th 5:22 Astain from all appearance of evil.
Astain+Abstain
Because, unlike the lost souls down at the local pub, Christians know what moderation and liberty means.
Precisely...
Are you serious?
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