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To: gscc
"To point to the usage when applied to our earthly biological father and then compare it to the meaning in the Scripture citation is not valid. He is clearly speaking of spiritual leaders."

Gscc, Jesus, the Apostle Matthew, and St. Paul all use the term "father" to refer to Spiritual leaders. If we read it literally, the passage says, call no man on earth your father. A literal reading would exclude the use of the word "Father" entirely, biological or otherwise. Did Jesus want us to invent another word for "Father"? Was that the intention of this passage? If so, why would Matthew use the word "Father" dozens of times to refer to people as Father, including, "Father Abraham." A literal interpretation was not what Jesus or Matthew had in mind. The passage means that God is more of a Father to us than any earthly father can ever be, because He loves us and wants what is best for us.
1,521 posted on 02/23/2006 4:00:59 PM PST by InterestedQuestioner (Believe in the Lord Jesus, and you will be saved.)
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To: InterestedQuestioner

The simplest explanation is in placing the "call no man father" in its historical context as well as literal context. Since Christ is talking about calling men masters and teachers as well as fathers, He is referring to the honorifics given various rabbis of His time, who had devoted followers. They had cadres of followers that belonged to "houses" and the rabbi would be called a "father" of that "house". The warning is then not to follow sectarian teachers, like we sometime do our parents, blindly, to the point that the unity of faith is fractured.

Clearly, we have numerous references to fathers, teachers and masters in the New Testament, so the prohibition in Matthew 23 was taken but allegorically by the inspired authors.


1,526 posted on 02/23/2006 4:50:49 PM PST by annalex
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