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Papal Supremacy Is Against Tradition
Modern Reformation website ^
| 2005
| Dr. Michael Horton
Posted on 02/06/2006 10:11:00 AM PST by AnalogReigns
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To: Kolokotronis
Pretty much the same as the Catholic one.
81
posted on
02/08/2006 9:36:22 AM PST
by
Cheverus
To: annalex
To be infallible a statement must be made in consensus of all the bishops who are in communion with Rome on matters of faith and morals
Not true. From the Catholic Encyclopedia:
EXPLANATION OF PAPAL INFALLIBILITY
The Vatican Council has defined as "a divinely revealed dogma" that "the Roman Pontiff, when he speaks ex cathedra -- that is, when in the exercise of his office as pastor and teacher of all Christians he defines, by virtue of his supreme Apostolic authority, a doctrine of faith or morals to be held by the whole Church -- is, by reason of the Divine assistance promised to him in blessed Peter, possessed of that infallibility with which the Divine Redeemer wished His Church to be endowed in defining doctrines of faith and morals; and consequently that such definitions of the Roman Pontiff are irreformable of their own nature (ex sese) and not by reason of the Church's consent" (Densinger no. 1839 -- old no. 1680). For the correct understanding of this definition it is to be noted that:
- what is claimed for the pope is infallibility merely, not impeccability or inspiration (see above under I).
- the infallibility claimed for the pope is the same in its nature, scope, and extent as that which the Church as a whole possesses; his ex cathedra teaching does not have to be ratified by the Church's in order to be infallible.
http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/07790a.htm
82
posted on
02/08/2006 10:46:43 AM PST
by
armydoc
To: armydoc
True, ratification of a synod is not required, but general, perhaps informal, consensus of the Magisterium is required, I believe.
83
posted on
02/08/2006 1:28:53 PM PST
by
annalex
To: annalex
True, ratification of a synod is not required, but general, perhaps informal, consensus of the Magisterium is required, I believe.
Negative. The Church teaches that the Pope, by his office, enjoys infallibility apart from approval or consensus of any other person or council, formal or informal. Do you have any information to the contrary?
84
posted on
02/08/2006 1:46:56 PM PST
by
armydoc
To: armydoc; AMHN
Thnak you, Doc.
I stand corrected to my 34. The Pope may teach infallibly without consent, formal or informal, of the Magisterium. Vatican II teaches that infallibility is a charism the pope "enjoys in virtue of his office, when, as the supreme shepherd and teacher of all the faithful, who confirms his brethren in their faith (Luke 22:32), he proclaims by a definitive act some doctrine of faith or morals. Therefore his definitions, of themselves, and not from the consent of the Church, are justly held irreformable, for they are pronounced with the assistance of the Holy Spirit, an assistance promised to him in blessed Peter."
(Papal Infallibility, a very accessible booklet on the matter)
85
posted on
02/08/2006 1:58:14 PM PST
by
annalex
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