[annalex]

The Greek word for "grace" that used in this verse is not the word for the gift of salvation, but the common word for favor

This is, sadly, a typical Protestant misrepresentation of the Greek Gospel. The word is "kecharitomene", irregularly formed past perfect participle of "to bestow grace" ("charitomenos/e" would be the regular formation). The word stem is "charis", almost without exception translated as "grace" in the King James' version. Especially where the theology of grace is established by Paul, "charis" is translated as "grace" consistently. "Favor" is of course a possible translation outside of the theological context, where "grace" is a term of art. The only reason King James chose to insert "favor" in Luke 1:28 is to obfuscate the fact that it is divine grace that Mary has received, not merely a favor.

The only other place the word form is used in the New Testament is Eph 1:6 "To the praise of the glory of his grace, wherein he hath made us accepted in the beloved." The phrase "made us accepted" is the same word form.

This is flat wrong and betrays somoene who is not reading Greek, but does not mind lying about the Gospel. I'd like to know who your source is, so we can avoid that author. "eis epainon doxes tes charitos autou en e echaritosen emas en to egapemeno" (Eph 1:6). Check for yourself at Unbound Bible. "Kecharitomene" does not appear anywhere else in the New Testament.

Jesus did not look upon his mother as "co-redeemer" and in fact thought those who heard and obeyed the word of God were as equally blessed as Mary.

You cite Luke 11:27. That indeed explains that we are to imitate Mary through the keeping of the Word, and gives us an example of veneration of Mary that you Protestants fail to follow. It does not suggest that we become physical mothers of Incarnate God, which remains uniquely what Mary did, and which makes her uniquely the co-Redeemer.

[blue-duncan]

Luke 1:28 "kecharitomene", is the perfect passive participle of "charitow" which means to bestow favor upon, favor highly, bless (Bauer, Gingrich and Danker).

Ephesians 1:6 "echaritosen" is the aorist active indicative of "charitow", the same word. The word you want to use is a noun in the same Ephesians 1:6 "To the praise of the glory of his grace (charis), wherein he hath made us accepted in the beloved."

Thayer translates "charitow", "to pursue with grace, compass with favor; to honor with blessing". He translates the noun "charis", "that kindness by which God bestows favors upon the ill deserving, and grants to sinners the pardon of their offenses, and bids them accept eternal salvation through Christ."

Luke 1:28 and Ephesians 1:6 are the only two places in the scriptures where the verb "charitow" is used. It was the Vulgate that changed the usage to conform to the church's dogma.



"That indeed explains that we are to imitate Mary through the keeping of the Word, and gives us an example of veneration of Mary"

That is just nonsense. The plain meaning of the text is whatever blessing His mother has is available to anyone who follows Him. He is saying there is nothing special about her blessing for He uses the same word. There is no veneration here. If anything Jesus is deflecting any veneration of His mother by making the blessing available to all who obey.

Luke 11:27 And it came to pass, as he spake these things, a certain woman of the company lifted up her voice, and said unto him, Blessed is the womb that bare thee, and the paps which thou hast sucked.
28 But he said, Yea rather, blessed are they that hear the word of God, and keep it.

[fortheDeclaration]

The Greek word for "grace" that used in this verse is not the word for the gift of salvation, but the common word for favor This is, sadly, a typical Protestant misrepresentation of the Greek Gospel. The word is "kecharitomene", irregularly formed past perfect participle of "to bestow grace" ("charitomenos/e" would be the regular formation). The word stem is "charis", almost without exception translated as "grace" in the King James' version. Especially where the theology of grace is established by Paul, "charis" is translated as "grace" consistently. "Favor" is of course a possible translation outside of the theological context, where "grace" is a term of art. The only reason King James chose to insert "favor" in Luke 1:28 is to obfuscate the fact that it is divine grace that Mary has received, not merely a favor.

First, King James had nothing to do with the translating of the King James Bible except authorizing it.

Second, 'favored' is used by the NASB and the NIV as well.

You admit that it is a possible translation.

Third, the word 'favored' simply means blessed anyway.

The real issue is did Mary need a saviour (not being born sinless).

She stated that Christ was her saviour (Lk.1:47).

The only other place the word form is used in the New Testament is Eph 1:6 "To the praise of the glory of his grace, wherein he hath made us accepted in the beloved." The phrase "made us accepted" is the same word form. This is flat wrong and betrays somoene who is not reading Greek, but does not mind lying about the Gospel. I'd like to know who your source is, so we can avoid that author. "eis epainon doxes tes charitos autou en e echaritosen emas en to egapemeno" (Eph 1:6). Check for yourself at Unbound Bible. "Kecharitomene" does not appear anywhere else in the New Testament.

A Roman Catholic talking about a Protestant lying about the Gospel!

LOL!

Now what does Mary have to do with any Gospel, except a false one?(Gal.1:6)