[blue-duncan]

"That passage stands in direct contrast to Luke 1:28, "hail full of grace". That grace is the grace of Christ that justifies the believer, starting with Mary, as Paul explains in verses 24-30."

The Greek word for "grace" that used in this verse is not the word for the gift of salvation, but the common word for favor.

Luk 1:28 And the angel came in unto her, and said, Hail, [thou that art] highly favoured, the Lord [is] with thee: blessed [art] thou among women.

The definition of this form of the Greek word "charitoo {khar-ee-to'-o}" is,
1) to make graceful
a) charming, lovely, agreeable
2) to pursue with grace, compass with favour
3) to honour with blessings

The only other place the word form is used in the New Testament is Eph 1:6 "To the praise of the glory of his grace, wherein he hath made us accepted in the beloved." The phrase "made us accepted" is the same word form.

"Mary is a co-redeemer because of her unique status of the Mother of God."

Jesus did not look upon his mother as "co-redeemer" and in fact thought those who heard and obeyed the word of God were as equally blessed as Mary.

Luk 11:27 "And it came to pass, as he spake these things, a certain woman of the company lifted up her voice, and said unto him, Blessed [is] the womb that bare thee, and the paps which thou hast sucked. But he said, Yea rather, blessed [are] they that hear the word of God, and keep it."

[annalex]

The Greek word for "grace" that used in this verse is not the word for the gift of salvation, but the common word for favor

This is, sadly, a typical Protestant misrepresentation of the Greek Gospel. The word is "kecharitomene", irregularly formed past perfect participle of "to bestow grace" ("charitomenos/e" would be the regular formation). The word stem is "charis", almost without exception translated as "grace" in the King James' version. Especially where the theology of grace is established by Paul, "charis" is translated as "grace" consistently. "Favor" is of course a possible translation outside of the theological context, where "grace" is a term of art. The only reason King James chose to insert "favor" in Luke 1:28 is to obfuscate the fact that it is divine grace that Mary has received, not merely a favor.

The only other place the word form is used in the New Testament is Eph 1:6 "To the praise of the glory of his grace, wherein he hath made us accepted in the beloved." The phrase "made us accepted" is the same word form.

This is flat wrong and betrays somoene who is not reading Greek, but does not mind lying about the Gospel. I'd like to know who your source is, so we can avoid that author. "eis epainon doxes tes charitos autou en e echaritosen emas en to egapemeno" (Eph 1:6). Check for yourself at Unbound Bible. "Kecharitomene" does not appear anywhere else in the New Testament.

Jesus did not look upon his mother as "co-redeemer" and in fact thought those who heard and obeyed the word of God were as equally blessed as Mary.

You cite Luke 11:27. That indeed explains that we are to imitate Mary through the keeping of the Word, and gives us an example of veneration of Mary that you Protestants fail to follow. It does not suggest that we become physical mothers of Incarnate God, which remains uniquely what Mary did, and which makes her uniquely the co-Redeemer.