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To: annalex
Women were assigned to assist in liturgy. That is the salient point.

It would be salient if it were true. The word 'tsâbâ' does not form the linkage you seem to desire. I tire of this nonsense, and will address it no longer. We disagree profoundly and completely.

Let is see how it does that. Note that no one is claiming that women were priests, no one is claiming they entered the very tabernacle, and Exodus 38:8 and 1 Samuel 2:22 show that they were at its door, and therefore inside the Temple.

The Holy of Holies was surrounded by the Sanctuary. Only the High Priest could enter the Holy of Holies, and that, only once a year. Only the priesthood could enter the Sanctuary, where priestly duties were performed... This is the 'Temple' proper. The Sanctuary was ringed with the Court of Israel (the Court of the Men), and only Hebrew men could enter therein. The Court of Israel was ringed by the Court of the Women. This was as far as Hebrew women could go. The Court of the Women was adjacent to, or ringed by (there is some contention) the General Court, or Court of the Gentiles. This was as far as any non-Hebrew could go.

The gate you must refer to is the gate between the Court of the Women and the Court of Israel, and thereby you seem to insist that these vestal virgins were allowed to enter the Court of the Men (where no woman could go, on pain of death), which can serve no liturgical purpose. Liturgical processes were limited to the precincts of the Sanctuary, where no one but the priesthood could enter. These are courtyards, and not the Temple itself.

And btw, 'at the gate' does not mean 'inside the gate', And considering the commandment that no woman should enter therein, one would naturally presume that 'at the gate' would mean near to the gate on the proper side thereof.

References from Jewish tradition, moreover, show what precisely these women were doing: weaving the veil, preparing incense etc. Somehow it did not occur to whoever was writing Mishna Shekalim, Babylonian Talmud Kethuboth, Pesikta Rabbati, 2 Baruch that he was describing a legal impossibility. So there.

References from the traditions of Judaism, or at least those you have provided, can just as easily apply to the natural meaning of virgin in the Hebrew sense, and require no special circumstance or order, nor do they lend the credence you would require. The legal impossibility is rendered in your interpretaion thereof, rather than within the texts themselves. Ergo, as I said before, another interpretation is most definitely called for, as any interpretation which causes the commandment to be nullified, must by it's nature, be in error.

I believe the evidence in front of me, as a rational person. I understand that the implications from the evidence probably upset you, but I am appealing to your rational sense.

I am not upset. But my rational sense requires me to understand that twisting the word of YHWH to fit the desires of men is the very definition of wickedness. What I am defending is the very kernel of that word, and the commandment that it can neither be added to or taken from - As Yeshua has commanded us both to observe. When one is purposefully denying what is specifically and explicitly laid out therein, one must of a necessity retire the thought and find another way forward. Since there is no exception within the explicit thing, one cannot use the implicit thing to change it, lest anything would be allowable, and that which is precise would lose the very nature of it's precision. It must be human hubris at that point, and we are told to follow YHWH, not Man.

And I would add btw, that I have entertained your argument by allowing not only the psuedapigraphal text you begin with, and your apocryphal sources and traditions, and also allowed the traditions of Judaism... But do not think for a minute that any of them, or all of them together, can move me from the clear word of YHWH. It boils down to the explicit commandments of the Torah, which are declared immutable and eternal. But do not feel slighted - Even if an angel came down and declared otherwise, I would show him the door as well.

[roamer_1:] This idea of seclusion is imprinted in the Roman mind because of centuries of religious nobility.

Psychologize all you want, I read "κατάκλειστοι τῶν παρθένων" and conclude that these were not merely virgins set apart by their virginity but κατάκλειστοι, locked away, virgins. Otherwise the inspired author would have simply said παρθένων.

I was speaking to the seclusion, the untouchable nature you implied wrt to the High Priest, not your imaginary nuns. You had claimed these virgins had access to the High Priest as if it showed some special status they possessed. My point was that everyone had access to the High Priest unless he was going about some consecrated duty, so virgins of any kind would have that access, along with anyone else.

And I do not consider 2Mac or any tradition to be inspired.

[roamer_1:] As I suggested before, it was by no means an uncommon thing for a city to lock away their daughters

This is your speculation, not supported by the text in 2 Maccabees.

I think it every bit as supported as your reading (which is also speculation):

18: Others ran flocking out of their houses to the general supplication, because the place was like to come into contempt.
19: And the women, girt with sackcloth under their breasts, abounded in the streets, and the virgins that were kept in ran, some to the gates, and some to the walls, and others looked out of the windows.
20: And all, holding their hands toward heaven, made supplication.

KJV w/Apoc, Mac 3:18-20

It says 'virgins who were kept in', not 'virgins who are kept in'. 'Were' implies 'had been, but are no longer kept'.

[...] On the other hand, Babylonian Talmud Kethuboth 106a) gives a rational reason for the institute of such virgins at all times: ordinary feminine work at the temple.

Right... work that can be performed by any virgin or betrothed woman. No special order is either necessary or noted. And were it noted, it would more likely be Levite women, the wives (betrothed) and daughters of the priests themselves - If one begins with a thought of celibate priests, one forgets that these priests had family and tribe, and might suppose them to be without access to females for such work - But it doesn't even say that. These virgins are the normal use of virgin, thus without implication, would naturally be daughters of the people generally.

Are the asterisks around "no" make it a provable fact? We just went over such Jewish sources.

The asterisks were for emphasis, And what you have presented from Jewish tradition is badly misinterpreted to suit your cause, else you should be able to find at least an handful of practicing Jews here on FR that agree with your argument. I would dare to say that no such testimony will be forthcoming...

So? Their role was different altogether.

So the Jewish Temple Virgins' role was to be completely hidden? That makes no sense at all... To the point of no creation of the order in the Torah, and no recognition or regulation within the Hebrew tradition? There are reams of regulation covering every aspect of Temple governance, yet not a peep about these mythical virgins? It is patently absurd.

88 posted on 01/25/2013 5:28:08 PM PST by roamer_1 (Globalism is just socialism in a business suit.)
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To: roamer_1
The word 'tsâbâ' does not form the linkage you seem to desire

Sure it does. Quoting myself: In Numbers 4/8 men are assigned to action צבא and in Exodus 38:8 and 1 Samuel 2:22 women are characterized as those performing the same action צבא. While we don't know what that action is, it is connected to the tabernacle per all four occurrences. That is your linkage.

The gate you must refer to is the gate between the Court of the Women and the Court of Israel, and thereby you seem to insist that these vestal virgins were allowed to enter the Court of the Men (where no woman could go, on pain of death), which can serve no liturgical purpose

Could be, and it could be that the somewhat mysterious service, צבא, was service directed to the women there assembled. Or it could be that the liturgical role in question was excluding women of marriageable age but exception was made for the virgins, who were allowed "at the door of the tabernacle" as the inspired text says. Like I said, it would be interesting to see the actual text banning women, since what you give is but a general description of the layout of the temple in your own words.

References from the traditions of Judaism, or at least those you have provided, can just as easily apply to the natural meaning of virgin in the Hebrew sense, and require no special circumstance or order, nor do they lend the credence you would require

I don't know what is "natural meaning of virgin in the Hebrew sense" and how it is different form the meaning of "virgin" in Dr. Marhsall's sense or, more to the point, in the Protoevagelium's sense. The point remains: they are at the door of the tabernacle; they were κατάκλειστοι and not simply παρθένοι; they had distinct functions making incense, baking ceremonial breads, and weaving the veil.

twisting the word of YHWH to fit the desires of men

I read the available evidence, some of it inspired and some not, and I do so objectively. I am not the one splitting hairs over assignment and action or suggesting that צבא must be said in military sense while it contradicts all four contexts we had in focus.

You had claimed these virgins had access to the High Priest as if it showed some special status they possessed

Don't put stuff in my mouth. I simply pointed out that epithet κατάκλειστοι is there for a reason and that epithet suggests some kind of separation from the rest of humanity.

the virgins that were kept

The rule of the English language is that all the verbs in a sentence have to be coordinated by tense, so if the narrative is in past tense that every verb in any role is in past tense also. I don't care how anyone translates it either; the original is clear enough, κατάκλειστοι, "under lock", or "locked", -- not a verb tense but a participle.

These virgins are the normal use of virgin, thus without implication, would naturally be daughters of the people generally.

Indeed, except they are given access to holy objects and described at least once as "under lock".

So the Jewish Temple Virgins' role was to be completely hidden?

It is manifestly not hidden since several scripture references and several tradition references are made to them. It is only hidden for people like yourself trying to deny evidence they don't like.

89 posted on 01/25/2013 6:11:53 PM PST by annalex (fear them not)
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To: roamer_1; annalex
"Jewish written tradition"? How the the Catholic church viewed "Jewish written tradition", i.e., the Talmud: From the Jewish Virtual Library, "In 1236 a Jewish apostate, Nicholas *Donin, submitted a memorandum to Pope *Gregory IX listing 35 charges against the Talmud. These included allegations that it contained blasphemies of Jesus and Mary, attacks on the Church, pronouncements hostile to non-Jews, and foolish and revolting tales. They asserted that the Jews had elevated the Oral Law to the level of divinely inspired Scripture, and that this impeded the possibility of their conversion to Christianity. Gregory thereupon ordered a preliminary investigation, and in 1239 sent a circular letter to ecclesiastics in France summarizing the accusations and ordering the confiscation of Jewish books on the first Saturday of Lent (i.e., March 3, 1240), while the Jews were gathered in synagogue. Any other persons having Hebrew books in their possession who refused to give them up were to be excommunicated. He further ordered the heads of the Dominican and Franciscan Orders in Paris to ensure that "those books in which you find errors of this sort you shall cause to be burned at the stake." Similar instructions were conveyed to the kings of France, England, Spain, and Portugal. It was in response to Gregory's circular that the first public religious *disputation between Jews and Christians was staged in Paris on June 25–27, 1240. The chief Jewish spokesman was R. *Jehiel of Paris, the most eminent French rabbi of the period. An inquisitorial committee condemned the Talmud two years later. In June 1242, 24 wagon loads of books totaling thousands of volumes were handed to the executioner for public burning. Copies may also have been seized and destroyed in Rome. Subsequently the burning of the Talmud was repeatedly urged by the popes. In France, Louis IX ordered further confiscations in 1247 and 1248 and upheld the principle in an ordinance of December 1254. It was confirmed by Philip III in 1284 and Philip IV in 1290 and 1299. A further burning was ordered in Toulouse in 1319 by the inquisitor Bernard Gui and in Perpignan. In his manual for inquisitors Gui also singled out the works of *Rashi, David *Kimḥi, and Maimonides for condemnation. The conflagration in Paris was compared by the contemporary scholar *Meir b. Baruch of Rothenberg to the destruction of the Temple in an elegy Sha'ali Serufah ("Ask is it well, O thou consumed in fire") included in the kinah of the Ninth of Av. *Jonah Gerondi, who had led the anti-Maimonists, is said to have connected the burning of the Talmud with the burning of the Guide in Montpellier and to have bitterly repented his attacks on Maimonides."
91 posted on 01/26/2013 8:12:06 AM PST by count-your-change (you don't have to be brilliant, not being stupid is enough)
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