[Teófilo]

Simple question: Considering that the Council of Nicea was convened by the Emperor, and that the decisions of the council were given the full weight of Roman law, wouldn't the official version be in Latin (without the filioque) rather than Greek? I'm sure the discussions were conducted in Greek, but the final document would have to have been put in Latin to be added to the code of Roman law.

The official proceedings and records of the Roman Empire were in Latin until 565, when Justinian II (son of the Great) changed it to Greek.

A "Simple Question?" Friend, you can write a thesis out of that...(LOL).

I have no idea how to answer that, not versed as I am on notarial practices in 4th century Rome. [sarcasm-not-aimed-at-you]Ask Dan Brown. He seems to be an "expert" in the period.[/sarcasm-not-aimed-at-you]

Seriously, an excellent question well beyond my ken.

-Theo

[bobjam]

Given that the educated and scholarly class of imperial Rome were perfectly fluent in both languages, I find it highly unlikely that any serious theological difference could be discerned from the original Latin and Greek versions. My interest is that the Nicene Creed may be the first major document of the Church to be originally published in Latin.

The degree to which Latin and Greek were interchangeable in Rome is demonstrated by the fact that St Paul's letter to the church in Rome, which then consisted mostly of the poorer classes, was written in Greek rather than Latin.