Posted on 07/19/2005 9:48:25 PM PDT by sionnsar
Traditional Anglican ping, continued in memory of its founder Arlin Adams. Not on subject exactly, but we have to start eliminating "Islamic" from discussion. My opinion.
Ping! Discussion on prophectic (or not-so-prophetic) voices.
You aren't alone in your opinion. I know several who feel that the war between good and evil as described in Revelations is now happening and that Allah is, in reality, Satan.
I cannot disagree with the assertion that this war is in fact between the forces of good and evil.
Considering the purpose of prophecy was to reveal God's will to mankind, and considering that the final revelation of God has been given to us in His Word, prophecy of any kind no longer takes place.
"...prophecy of any kind no longer takes place."
Really?
http://www.geocities.com/kitezhgrad/prophets/
Yes, really. What was the purpose of prophecy in the 1st Century?
"What was the purpose of prophecy in the 1st Century?"
That depends on the specific prophecy. Here's one...
"And as we tarried [there] many days, there came down from Judaea a certain prophet, named Agabus.
And when he was come unto us, he took Paul's girdle, and bound his own hands and feet, and said, Thus saith the Holy Ghost, So shall the Jews at Jerusalem bind the man that owneth this girdle, and shall deliver [him] into the hands of the Gentiles"(Acts 21:10-11)
I mean the overall purpose of prophecy. Was it not to reveal the will of God to man?
"I mean the overall purpose of prophecy. Was it not to reveal the will of God to man?"
WHAT IS YOUR POINT AS TO THE PROPHECIES THAT FOLLOWED THOSE WE FIND IN THE NT, THE ONES I PROVIDED YOU WITH A LINK TO?
My point is this. If purpose of prophecy was to reveal the will of God, since we now have the final revelation of God in the Bible, there is no reason for prophecy today.
A rash assumption..."we now have the final revelation of God in the Bible."
No, it isn't an assumption.
2Ti 3:16-17
(16) Every scripture inspired of God is also profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, for instruction which is in righteousness.
(17) That the man of God may be complete, furnished completely unto every good work.
If "the man of God may be complete, furnished completely unto every good work" by using Scripture, then I would say that no other revelation of God would be needed.
If.
According to Scripture, it is the case. I was merely using if at the start of my sentence to make a point. The Bible is clear.
Romans 12:5-7 (New King James Version)
5so we, being many, are one body in Christ, and individually members of one another. 6Having then gifts differing according to the grace that is given to us, let us use them: if prophecy, let us prophesy in proportion to our faith; 7or ministry, let us use it in our ministering; he who teaches, in teaching;
In the 1st Century, at the time of the writing of the Book of Romans, there was the gift of Prophecy. Had the Word of God been completely revealed at that time? No. Therefore, there was still the need for prophecy. However, God's Word is now completely revealed, and there is no more need for prophecy.
With that logic we no longer need teachers either. Everything has been taught.
Disclaimer: Opinions posted on Free Republic are those of the individual posters and do not necessarily represent the opinion of Free Republic or its management. All materials posted herein are protected by copyright law and the exemption for fair use of copyrighted works.