"I think that Christians of any age would recognize the sequence of the Mass, the Liturgy of the Word and of the Eucharist, the place of the Creed, of the epiclesis and the anaphora."
I have searched in vain for the epiclesis in the NO rubrics. I understand that the Roman Church has taught that at the consecration the priest stands in the place of Christ. Does this explain the apparent absence of an epiclesis? In the Orthodox Divine Liturgy is is clearly expressed that it is the prayer of the priest and people that God, through the Holy Spirit:
"Priest (in a low voice):
Once again we offer to You this spiritual worship without the shedding of blood, and we ask, pray, and entreat You: send down Your Holy Spirit upon us and upon these gifts here presented.
And make this bread the precious Body of Your Christ.
(He blesses the holy Bread.)
Deacon (in a low voice):
Amen.
Priest (in a low voice):
And that which is in this cup the precious Blood of Your Christ.
(He blesses the holy Cup.)
Deacon (in a low voice):
Amen.
Priest (in a low voice):
Changing them by Your Holy Spirit.
(He blesses them both.)
Deacon (in a low voice):
Amen. Amen. Amen."
What am I missing?
You're missing this:
http://myweb.lmu.edu/fjust/Docs/EP1-4.htm
-Theo
The Divine Liturgy of St. Peter does not have an Epiklesis (it being essentially the Roman Canon as we know it), and it was said among the Orthodox for many centuries up to the 1900's. See note 34 in the link below.
http://www.odox.net/Liturgy1-Peter.htm
But you might also wish to read more where St. John Chrysostom says of the Liturgy: "It is not man that causes the things offered to become the Body and Blood of Christ, but he who was crucified for us, Christ himself. The priest, in the role of Christ, pronounces these words, but their power and grace are God's. 'This is my body,' he says. This word transforms the things offered." (De proditione Judae. 1.6, PG 49,380.)