Posted on 03/12/2005 1:33:40 PM PST by Grey Ghost II
Mary asks the angel Gabriel how can she conceive since she does not know man.
If she was to marry Joseph and have relations, wouldn't her question be nonsensical?
The exchange strongly implies Mary's perpetual virginity.
Martin Luther as well as other reformers believed in her perpetual virginity. Besides the constant witness of the Church, Roman and Greek, as well as even some of the early Reformers, how can one living 2000 years later be so sure of himself that he would wish to publicly cast doubt on what had been a constant, universal belief throughout Christendom for 1500 years?
She does not know man when she asks the question. She is free to know man afterwards, isn't she?
I believe in the virgin birth but in no way see this quote as an absolute pledge on her part to never know man.
Before I ppost any more comments, why do you want to find a specific verse in the Bible that says that Mary remained a Virgen for the rest of Her life? Do you believe or not in Her Perpetual Virginity?
latinmass
YOU WROTE: She does not know man when she asks the question. She is free to know man afterwards, isn't she?
Yes, but marriage of course implies relations, so her initial reaction "how can this be since I do not know man?" implies that this particular marriage would not have relations
Why would Mary say this "how can this be?" if she knew there would be relations with Jospeh? If she was to have relations, she would not ask that question of how she would have a baby!
So this is strong evidence in Scripture and it has been the constant teaching of the Church for 2000 years besides.
'I do not know man' is a statement describing her present status. In no way does it imply any reference to her status in the future - you misread 'I do not know man' as 'I will never know man.'
I can't see how anyone can make that leap with any certainty.
"but I don't see how that limits Mary as a perpetual virgin."
Limits?
Why is perpetual virginity a limitation?
It isn't - the use of langauge being argued by some folks on the thread is what's limiting, not the status as a perpetual virgin.
I'm not using limited as a kind of pejorative.
This truth was held from the earliest days of the Church by the early Fathers, popes and councils.
Just some of those who declared this are Origen, St. Ambrose, St. Jerome, St. Augustine, Zeno of Verona, St. Epiphanius, St. Basil the Great, St. John Damascene, St. Peter Chrsologus, Pope Siricius 392 A.D., the Fifth General Council in 553 A.D. which gace Our Lady the title of "Perpetual Virgin".
Origen states that John 19,26, "Woman behold thy son" (i.e St. John the Evangelist) presumes that Our Lady had no other children.
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