Posted on 12/10/2004 3:55:50 PM PST by Logophile
The traditional Christmas song "Away in a Manger" says "The cattle are lowing, the poor baby wakes/But little Lord Jesus, no crying He makes."
This has always struck me as unlikelyinfants cry. But perhaps there is some theological point I have missed. Does anyone here believe that the infant Jesus did not cry?
My baby didn't cry when he was born. He just looked around. Yes, he was/is healthy.
This has always perplexed me. But perhaps there is some point I have missed. Is it actually correct that Billy Mack knows exactly what the facts is rather than what the facts are? Is there some to pronounce "justice" such that it will remotely rhyme with either Texas, 'facts is' or taxes?
I'm still thinking of posting one with the title: Why? No text follows. It seems to me that would be the ultimate vanity. Maybe I'll do it on Christmas Eve....when no one is looking!
I suggest we collect them, get some matches, and have a "Bonfire of the Vanities".
Ooops. Sorry. Didn't see you previous post. A bottle of Magnificat with dinner has my guard down a bit.
the hymn was written 1500 years after Christ was born...
However, I believe what it means is that he was an "easy" baby, not a colicy one...
Tex-iz
Fax-iz
Just-iz
Tax-iz
I didn't check your profile ... is you not from Texas?
There are also a number of Christmas songs which says the "Angels sang". Actually there are only two places in scripture where the angels sing. One is at creation and the second is at our Lord Jesus' return. They never sing at the birth of Chirst.
It doesn't matter. I still like the songs.
***Jesus was a perfect man. He was therefore a perfect baby.***
You put forward interesting ideas, but being that the Scripture is silent on the subject...
The fact that Jesus was the perfect man did not stop him from being angry, frustrated, disappointed, etc.
I think that the over-sanitized Jesus is more a product of man's theology (be it Catholic or Victorian Protestant) than an actual picture of the Jesus of the Scriptures.
I'm real fuzzy, if I ever even knew something about this at all, but yes, I do believe there is a theological assertion being made.
I know that because Mary conceived without being defiled by the spiritual effects of Adam's sins (I'm wording that really carefully because from another thread it appears to me that he disagreement between Catholics and Orthodox over the Immaculate Conception is one over wording; the Orthodox believe Catholics' wording of "original sin" is misleading.) that Mary did not experience pain in giving birth. Likewise, it would make sense that the baby would experience neither the pain, nor would he experience birth as a loss.
But I'm getting way too wild, and I'm sure there's a theologically similar way of explaining it that doesn't alientate Protestants.
Dunno, but we do know the adult Jesus wept.
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