Another blatant mis-interpretation. Please remember to read the rest of the verse...."for the same is the Lord over all, rich unto all that call upon him."
Ro 10:12. For there is no difference between the Jew and the Greek: for the same Lord over all is rich unto all that call upon him.
And how does it change in any way what I said? Please speak to the point I made, did or did not Paul say that despite the differences between the converted Jews and Gentiles, “unto all that call upon him.” there is no difference?
They were all part of the body of Christ, and if Jews and Gentiles call upon him, there is no difference, even though they chose to worship him in different ways.
Please show me where the twelve apostles changed their customs when they became Christians. Acts 10, Ten years after Christ resurrection and the twelve had been running things, Peter still ate kosher, and refused the Lords command to eat of the unclean animals.
Peter told Cornelius it was unlawful for him to be with there in his home, and later Peter separated himself from eating with the Gentiles. Why were the twelve so willing to turn the teaching of the Gentiles over to Paul?
They were all Christians, and there was no difference between them spiritually as far as their salvation was concerned, but they still followed Christ differently, depending on their background.
Your thinking that to please Christ you must consider yourself superior and separate from anyone who isn’t Catholic, is delusional, and the same hypocrisy the Pharisees were guilty of.
JH :)