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While the New Testament uses the Greek word "demon" to refer to these "sons of the mighty", the Old Testament uses revealing descriptive names. Words which describe these beings, such as b'nai Elohim, "sons of God", Zophim, "the watchers", and Malakh, "messengers", (translated angel in English), are used for the "aerial host" often regardless of alignment. New Testament demons were understandably associated with evil, since originally the Greek term diamon meant "any deity", and the Bible consistently portrays only one God. There are three main terms for demons in the New Testament: daimonion (demon; 60 times, 50 in the Gospels); pneuma (spirit; some 52 times) usually with a qualifying adjective such as akatharton (unclean; 21 times) or poneron (evil; 8 times); and angelos (7 times of demonic agencies). Daimon (demon), the term commonly used in classical Greek, appears only once (Mark 8:31) ( Baker's Evangelical Dictionary of Biblical Theology - Walter A. Elwell (Ed))

Assuming that fallen angels were never de-frocked of their bodies, why would it be necessary or desirable for a fallen angel to 'possess' a human body which is far less impressive than theirs? If demons are actually dis-embodied spirits (which would explain why they want to possess humans), where did they come from? Products of angel/human relations? maybe... don't know... assuming they are, wouldn't this be a very limited army at Satan's disposal? were the angels which had relations with humans doing this for so long without challenge that would explain the multitude of demons that are known to exist? Only a third of the angels rebelled against God... not much to work with there at armageddon when your still facing the other 2/3rds.

Now here's a real good kicker... You know how God likes the number 3.... We know that Satan leads a rebellion against God twice... once in heaven with 1/3 of the angels, and once in Revelations at armageddon. What happened to 3??? (unless armageddon IS # 3... so where's # 2?)